Let the exist some prime number and set where all elements in are every prime number from to , inclusive. The product of all elements in is . Does there always exist some prime number such that
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Since we know n is the product of all the prime numbers from 1 to p , so we can say that the prime factorization of n is 1 ⋅ 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 . . . p . If n − 1 = m we can say that m is relatively prime to all prime numbers from 1 to p , and if m is relatively prime to all potential prime factorization, then m must be prime itself, and we know n − 1 = m satisfies the condition p < m < n , thus showing it is always possible .