Given that , if inequality has exactly integer solutions for , find the range of .
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If ∣ a ∣ ≤ 1 then for any x < 0 :
( x − b ) 2 = x 2 − 2 b x + b 2 > x 2 > ( a x ) 2
Which means infinite integer solutions for x . So from now on, ∣ a ∣ > 1 .
Let's find roots of the equation: ( x − b ) 2 = ( a x ) 2
x 2 − 2 b x + b 2 = a 2 x 2
( 1 − a 2 ) x 2 − 2 b x + b 2 = 0
x = 1 − a 2 b ± b 2 − b 2 ( 1 − a 2 )
x = 1 − a 2 b ± a 2 b 2
x = 1 − ∣ a ∣ 2 b ± ∣ a ∣ b (since b > 0 )
x = ( 1 + ∣ a ∣ ) ( 1 − ∣ a ∣ ) b ( 1 ± ∣ a ∣ )
x = 1 ∓ ∣ a ∣ b
Because ∣ a ∣ > 1 , 1 − ∣ a ∣ b < 0 < 1 + ∣ a ∣ b . Since x = 0 is a solution for the inequality, all solutions lie between the roots.
From the condition 1 + ∣ a ∣ b < 1 + ∣ a ∣ 1 + a < 1 , which means that x = 1 cannot be a solution. So, the three integer solutions are 0 , − 1 , − 2 .
That can be if two inequalities are true:
{ ( − 2 − b ) 2 > − 2 a 2 ( − 3 − b ) 2 < − 3 a 2 for x = − 2 for x = − 3
{ ( b + 2 ) 2 > 2 2 a 2 ( b + 3 ) 2 < 3 2 a 2
2 b + 1 2 > a 2 > 3 b + 1 2
2 b + 1 > ∣ a ∣ > 3 b + 1
Finally we get:
2 a + 1 + 1 > 2 b + 1 > ∣ a ∣ > 3 b + 1
We are not that interested in b :
2 a + 3 > ∣ a ∣
The solution for the modal inequality is a ∈ ( − 1 , 3 ) . But since ∣ a ∣ > 1 , all that is left is a ∈ ( 1 , 3 )
All is left is to prove that we can always find a proper value for b :
2 a + 1 + 1 > 2 b + 1 > ∣ a ∣ > 3 b + 1 > 1
a + 1 > b > 2 ∣ a ∣ − 2 > 3 2 b > 0
We just need to take value slightly more than 2 ∣ a ∣ − 2 which is always positive, so that the conditions are met