Fractions with Factorials

Calculus Level 3

1 2 ! + 2 3 ! + 3 4 ! + 4 5 ! + = ? \frac{1}{2!} + \frac{2}{3!} + \frac{3}{4!} + \frac{4}{5!} + \cdots = \ ?


The answer is 1.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

11 solutions

Discussions for this problem are now closed

Chew-Seong Cheong
Nov 22, 2014

My solution is different. S = n = 2 n 1 n ! = n = 2 ( n n ! 1 n ! ) = n = 2 ( 1 ( n 1 ) ! 1 n ! ) S = \sum _{n=2} ^\infty {\frac {n-1}{n!}} = \sum _{n=2} ^\infty {\left( \frac {n}{n!} - \frac {1}{n!} \right)} = \sum _{n=2} ^\infty {\left( \frac {1}{(n-1)!} - \frac {1}{n!} \right)} = 1 1 ! 1 2 ! + 1 2 ! 1 3 ! + 1 3 ! 1 4 ! . . . = 1 = \frac {1}{1!} - \frac {1}{2!} + \frac {1}{2!} - \frac {1}{3!} + \frac {1}{3!} - \frac {1}{4!}... = \boxed {1}

why the solutions is wrong

Damekei Aniñon - 6 years, 6 months ago

I said my approach was different not that the other solutions were wrong.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 6 years, 6 months ago
Pranjal Jain
Nov 22, 2014

We may use taylor series expansion of e x e^{x}

e x = 1 + x + x 2 2 ! + x 3 3 ! + x 4 4 ! + . . . e^{x}=1+x+\frac{x^{2}}{2!}+\frac{x^{3}}{3!}+\frac{x^{4}}{4!}+...

Dividing throughout by x,

e x x = 1 x + 1 + x 2 ! + x 2 3 ! + x 3 4 ! + . . . \frac{e^{x}}{x}=\frac{1}{x}+1+\frac{x}{2!}+\frac{x^{2}}{3!}+\frac{x^{3}}{4!}+...

Differentiate both sides wrt x,

x e x e x x 2 = 1 x 2 + 1 2 ! + 2 x 3 ! + 3 x 2 4 ! + . . . \frac{xe^{x}-e^{x}}{x^{2}}=\frac{-1}{x^{2}}+\frac{1}{2!}+\frac{2x}{3!}+\frac{3x^{2}}{4!}+...

Substitute x = 1 x=1 ,

0 = 1 + 1 2 ! + 2 3 ! + 3 4 ! + . . . 0=-1+\frac{1}{2!}+\frac{2}{3!}+\frac{3}{4!}+...

So the sum of given series is 1 \boxed{1}

This is what you would find in books. ::) Great, Pranjal.

Sankalp Ranjan - 6 years, 6 months ago

I haven't seen this in any book as I hate reading books but whenever I see factorials in denominator I run behind using Taylor Series+Calculus...

Pranjal Jain - 6 years, 6 months ago
Pi Han Goh
Nov 21, 2014

Recall that k = 0 1 k ! = e \displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {1}{k!} = e

Hence,

1 2 ! + 2 3 ! + 3 4 ! + 4 5 ! + = k = 0 k + 1 ( k + 2 ) ! = k = 0 k + 2 1 ( k + 2 ) ! = k = 0 k + 2 ( k + 2 ) ! k = 0 1 ( k + 2 ) ! = k = 0 1 ( k + 1 ) ! k = 0 1 ( k + 2 ) ! , telescoping series = 1 ( 0 + 1 ) ! = 1 \begin{aligned} \displaystyle \frac {1}{2!} + \frac {2}{3!} + \frac {3}{4!} + \frac {4}{5!} + \ldots & = & \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {k+1}{(k+2)!} \\ & = & \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {k+2-1}{(k+2)!} \\ & = & \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {k+2}{(k+2)!} - \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {1}{(k+2)!} \\ & = & \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {1}{(k+1)!} - \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac {1}{(k+2)!}, \text{telescoping series} \\ & = & \frac {1}{(0+1)!} = \boxed{1} \\ \end{aligned}

Nice solution but can please somebody tell me what is telescoping over here?? I even noticed it on another solution on brilliant. Please somebody tell me, I'm really curious about it. Thanks

Sarthak Tanwani - 6 years, 6 months ago

could explain telescoping series...please

Naga Raju - 6 years, 6 months ago

Here you go !

Pi Han Goh - 6 years, 2 months ago
Anna Anant
Nov 26, 2014

(2-1)/2! +(3-1)/3!+(4-1)/4!+.....= 1

I really like the simplicity of the solution you're approaching, but could you be more elaborate in the description, for I am not understanding the application of how this works. As too, why would the answer be one? What is the pattern that is making this pattern into one, and how can all the numbers when put together become that number?

Shehruz Khan - 6 years, 6 months ago

(2-1)/2! +(3-1)/3! ....... = 1-1/2!+1/2!-1/3!+1/3!+........ all the other numbers following one cancel each another if the series would continue till infinity.

thewinnerishere . - 6 years, 6 months ago
Kartik Sharma
Nov 23, 2014

S = n = 1 n ( n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle S\quad =\quad \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { n }{ (n+1)! } }

S + ( e 2 ) = n = 1 n ( n + 1 ) ! + n = 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle S\quad +\quad (e-2)\quad =\quad \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { n }{ (n+1)! } } \quad +\quad \sum _{ n= 1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { 1 }{ (n+1)! } }

S + ( e 2 ) = n = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ! \displaystyle S\quad +\quad (e-2)\quad =\quad \sum _{ n=1 }^{ \infty }{ \frac { (n+1) }{ (n+1)! } }

S + ( e 2 ) = e 1 \displaystyle S\quad +\quad (e-2)\quad =\quad e-1

S = 1 \displaystyle S\quad =\quad 1

I didnt understand the second step

Revathi Prasad - 6 years, 6 months ago

By definition, e = n = 0 1 n ! = 1 0 ! + 1 1 ! + n = 3 1 n ! = 2 + n = 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! e = \displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac 1 {n!} = \frac 1 {0!} + \frac 1 {1!} + \displaystyle \sum_{n=3}^\infty \frac 1 {n!} =2+ \displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1 {(n+1)!}

Pi Han Goh - 6 years, 2 months ago

If we have forgotten about the Taylor series expansion of e e , it suffices to consider the partial sums of i = 1 i ( i + 1 ) ! \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{i}{(i+1)!} .

Notice that S n = i = 1 n i ( i + 1 ) ! = 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! S_n = \sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{i}{(i+1)!} = 1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!} (Proof by induction)

Sketch of Proof by Induction: H n : S n = 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! H_n: S_n = 1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!}

  1. Verify H 1 : S 1 = 1 2 H_1: S_1 = \frac{1}{2} is true.

  2. Assume for some n n that H n H_n is true, and consider H n + 1 H_{n+1} ,

( i = 1 n i ( i + 1 ) ! ) + n + 1 ( n + 2 ) ! = ( 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! ) + n + 1 ( n + 2 ) ! = 1 ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 2 ) ! = 1 n + 1 ( n + 2 ) ! \begin{aligned} \left(\sum_{i=1}^{n} \frac{i}{(i+1)!}\right) + \frac{n+1}{(n+2)!} & = \left(1 - \frac{1}{(n+1)!}\right) + \frac{n+1}{(n+2)!} \\ & = 1 - \frac{(n+1)(n+1)! - (n+2)(n+1)!}{(n+1)!(n+2)!} \\ & = 1 - \frac{n+1}{(n+2)!} \end{aligned}

By the principle of induction, H n H_n is true for all n n

Then it is straightforward to see that lim n S n = 1 \lim_{n\rightarrow \infty} S_n = \boxed{1}

Monic Monic
Jan 4, 2015

dumb ways as always :p

Moderator note:

You have made an arithmetic error: it should be 119 120 \frac {119}{120} . However, you have only shown that it is approximately equals to 1 1 but have not shown that the limit is indeed exactly equals to 1 1 .

Jack Rawlin
Jan 2, 2015

The first term of the series is 1 2 ! = 1 2 \frac{1}{2!} = \frac{1}{2} since the remainder of the series gets increasingly less than that, it is only logical to assume that the answer will end up being the closest integer away from zero (this is because the series only adds numbers so the answer must be above the first term). This makes the answer 1 1 logically.

Note - The above method doesn't always work.

Moderator note:

Your solution is not right. Consider the harmonic series: 1 1 + 1 2 + 1 3 + 1 4 + \frac 1 1 + \frac 1 2 + \frac 1 3 + \frac 14 + \ldots . The remainders of this series too gets increasing less than 1 1 \frac 1 1 thus we will make the wrong conclusion that it converges to 2 2 which in fact should diverge. And furthermore, you remark that it doesn't always work shows that it's not a valid proof.

Adding

1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4 ! + ...

You will get

2/2! + 3/3! + 4/4! + ...

Which equal to 1 + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + ,,,

Now substract 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4 ! + ...

So the answer is 1

Moderator note:

You need to show that the three series you used are all convergent, else you will perform arithmetic on infinity: + \infty + \infty - \infty .

Aastha Shah
Nov 26, 2014

the first term is 1/2 and then it goes on decreasing and since it is an integer 1 or 2 is the answer ....by hit and trial

Moderator note:

Your solution is wrong. We did not explicitly say that the answer must be an integer. Your solution also does not show that it must either be equals to 1 1 or 2 2 . Consider the harmonic series: 1 1 + 1 2 + 1 3 + \frac 1 1 + \frac 1 2 + \frac 1 3 + \ldots , per your words: "it goes on decreasing" and you will wrongfully conclude that it converge which in fact it will diverge.

Ritwik Sadhu
Nov 25, 2014

Put s = 1/2! + 2/3! + 3/4! + .....

(Assume s converges)

Now, e = 1 + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3!+....

 =>     s + e = 1 + 1/1! + 2/2! + 3/3! + 4/4! + ...
                 = 1 + [1 + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + ...]
                 = 1 + e

  =>s = 1

Moderator note:

You first need to show that s s converges rather than assuming it converge. Else, in other cases, you will assume that the Grandi series will converge which in fact doesn't converge.

The easiest way to prove it converge is through ratio test.

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...