2 ! 1 + 3 ! 2 + 4 ! 3 + 5 ! 4 + ⋯ = ?
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why the solutions is wrong
I said my approach was different not that the other solutions were wrong.
We may use taylor series expansion of e x
e x = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + 4 ! x 4 + . . .
Dividing throughout by x,
x e x = x 1 + 1 + 2 ! x + 3 ! x 2 + 4 ! x 3 + . . .
Differentiate both sides wrt x,
x 2 x e x − e x = x 2 − 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 2 x + 4 ! 3 x 2 + . . .
Substitute x = 1 ,
0 = − 1 + 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 2 + 4 ! 3 + . . .
So the sum of given series is 1
This is what you would find in books. ::) Great, Pranjal.
I haven't seen this in any book as I hate reading books but whenever I see factorials in denominator I run behind using Taylor Series+Calculus...
Recall that k = 0 ∑ ∞ k ! 1 = e
Hence,
2 ! 1 + 3 ! 2 + 4 ! 3 + 5 ! 4 + … = = = = = k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 2 ) ! k + 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 2 ) ! k + 2 − 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 2 ) ! k + 2 − k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 2 ) ! 1 k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 1 ) ! 1 − k = 0 ∑ ∞ ( k + 2 ) ! 1 , telescoping series ( 0 + 1 ) ! 1 = 1
Nice solution but can please somebody tell me what is telescoping over here?? I even noticed it on another solution on brilliant. Please somebody tell me, I'm really curious about it. Thanks
could explain telescoping series...please
(2-1)/2! +(3-1)/3!+(4-1)/4!+.....= 1
I really like the simplicity of the solution you're approaching, but could you be more elaborate in the description, for I am not understanding the application of how this works. As too, why would the answer be one? What is the pattern that is making this pattern into one, and how can all the numbers when put together become that number?
(2-1)/2! +(3-1)/3! ....... = 1-1/2!+1/2!-1/3!+1/3!+........ all the other numbers following one cancel each another if the series would continue till infinity.
S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! n
S + ( e − 2 ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! n + n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! 1
S + ( e − 2 ) = n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 1 )
S + ( e − 2 ) = e − 1
S = 1
I didnt understand the second step
By definition, e = n = 0 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = 0 ! 1 + 1 ! 1 + n = 3 ∑ ∞ n ! 1 = 2 + n = 1 ∑ ∞ ( n + 1 ) ! 1
If we have forgotten about the Taylor series expansion of e , it suffices to consider the partial sums of ∑ i = 1 ∞ ( i + 1 ) ! i .
Notice that S n = i = 1 ∑ n ( i + 1 ) ! i = 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1 (Proof by induction)
Sketch of Proof by Induction: H n : S n = 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1
Verify H 1 : S 1 = 2 1 is true.
Assume for some n that H n is true, and consider H n + 1 ,
( i = 1 ∑ n ( i + 1 ) ! i ) + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = ( 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! 1 ) + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = 1 − ( n + 1 ) ! ( n + 2 ) ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 1 ) ! − ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) ! = 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1
By the principle of induction, H n is true for all n
Then it is straightforward to see that n → ∞ lim S n = 1
You have made an arithmetic error: it should be 1 2 0 1 1 9 . However, you have only shown that it is approximately equals to 1 but have not shown that the limit is indeed exactly equals to 1 .
The first term of the series is 2 ! 1 = 2 1 since the remainder of the series gets increasingly less than that, it is only logical to assume that the answer will end up being the closest integer away from zero (this is because the series only adds numbers so the answer must be above the first term). This makes the answer 1 logically.
Note - The above method doesn't always work.
Your solution is not right. Consider the harmonic series: 1 1 + 2 1 + 3 1 + 4 1 + … . The remainders of this series too gets increasing less than 1 1 thus we will make the wrong conclusion that it converges to 2 which in fact should diverge. And furthermore, you remark that it doesn't always work shows that it's not a valid proof.
Adding
1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4 ! + ...
You will get
2/2! + 3/3! + 4/4! + ...
Which equal to 1 + 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4! + ,,,
Now substract 1/2! + 1/3! + 1/4 ! + ...
So the answer is 1
You need to show that the three series you used are all convergent, else you will perform arithmetic on infinity: ∞ + ∞ − ∞ .
the first term is 1/2 and then it goes on decreasing and since it is an integer 1 or 2 is the answer ....by hit and trial
Your solution is wrong. We did not explicitly say that the answer must be an integer. Your solution also does not show that it must either be equals to 1 or 2 . Consider the harmonic series: 1 1 + 2 1 + 3 1 + … , per your words: "it goes on decreasing" and you will wrongfully conclude that it converge which in fact it will diverge.
Put s = 1/2! + 2/3! + 3/4! + .....
(Assume s converges)
Now, e = 1 + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3!+....
=> s + e = 1 + 1/1! + 2/2! + 3/3! + 4/4! + ...
= 1 + [1 + 1/1! + 1/2! + 1/3! + ...]
= 1 + e
=>s = 1
You first need to show that s converges rather than assuming it converge. Else, in other cases, you will assume that the Grandi series will converge which in fact doesn't converge.
The easiest way to prove it converge is through ratio test.
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My solution is different. S = n = 2 ∑ ∞ n ! n − 1 = n = 2 ∑ ∞ ( n ! n − n ! 1 ) = n = 2 ∑ ∞ ( ( n − 1 ) ! 1 − n ! 1 ) = 1 ! 1 − 2 ! 1 + 2 ! 1 − 3 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 − 4 ! 1 . . . = 1