Infinite Square Well

A particle of mass m m is in an infinite square well of width a a . The particle is equally likely to be found in the region. What is the probability that a measurement of energy is found at ground state?


The answer is 0.8106.

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2 solutions

Ross Gunderson
Jan 26, 2015

Jack Ceroni
Apr 8, 2020

Let the position space wavefunction describing this system be given by Ψ ( x , t ) \Psi(x, \ t) . We know that we can write the wavefunction as a linear combination of energy eigenfunctions:

Ψ ( x , t ) = n c n ( t ) ψ n ( x ) \Psi(x, \ t) \ = \ \displaystyle\sum_{n} \ c_n(t) \psi_n(x)

Now, we will have H ^ ψ n ( x ) = E n ψ n ( x ) \hat{H} \psi_n(x) \ = \ E_n \psi_n(x) . We also know that by the Schrödinger equation we will have:

i d Ψ d t = H ^ Ψ i n d c n ( t ) d t ψ n ( x ) = n c n ( t ) E n ψ n ( x ) i\hbar \frac{d \Psi}{dt} \ = \ \hat{H} \Psi \ \Rightarrow \ i\hbar \displaystyle\sum_{n} \frac{d c_n(t)}{dt} \psi_n(x) \ = \ \displaystyle\sum_{n} c_n(t) E_n \psi_n(x)

As each energy eigenfunction is orthonormal, we solve the general differential equation by matching up terms in the sums, getting c n ( t ) = c n ( 0 ) e i E n t / c_n(t) \ = \ c_n(0) e^{- i E_n t / \hbar} . By Born's rules, we know that the probability of finding the particle in the n n -th energy eigenstate is given by:

c n ( t ) 2 = c n ( 0 ) e i E n t / 2 = c n ( 0 ) 2 |c_n(t)|^2 \ = \ |c_n(0) e^{- i E_n t / \hbar} |^2 \ = \ |c_n(0)|^2

We know that at some time t 0 t_0 , the particle is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. Thus, we will have Ψ ( x , t 0 ) = C \Psi(x, \ t_0) \ = \ C , where C C is some constant. We also know that:

Ψ ( x , t 0 ) = n c n ( 0 ) e i E n t 0 / ψ n ( x ) \Psi(x, \ t_0) \ = \ \displaystyle\sum_{n} \ c_n(0) e^{-i E_n t_0 / \hbar} \psi_n(x)

Thus, since each ψ n ( x ) \psi_n(x) is orthonormal, multiplying by ψ i ( x ) \psi^{*}_i(x) and integrating will cancel all terms except for the i i -th, where the integral of the eigenstate multiplied by its conjugate will be 1 1 , leaving c n ( 0 ) e i E n t 0 / c_n(0) e^{-i E_n t_0 / \hbar} , where we multiply by its conjugate to get the final probability c n ( 0 ) 2 |c_n(0)|^2 (the exponential cancels with its conjugate). Thus, we have:

c 1 ( 0 ) e i E 1 t 0 / = 0 a Ψ ( x , t 0 ) ψ 1 ( x ) d x c_1(0) e^{-i E_1 t_0 / \hbar} \ = \ \displaystyle\int_{0}^{a} \ \Psi(x, \ t_0) \psi^{*}_1(x) \ dx

By the normalization condition, we can find C C :

0 a Ψ ( t 0 , x ) 2 d x = 0 a C 2 d x = 1 C = 1 a \displaystyle\int_{0}^{a} \ |\Psi(t_0, \ x)|^2 \ dx \ = \ \displaystyle\int_{0}^{a} \ |C|^2 \ dx \ = \ 1 \ \Rightarrow \ C \ = \ \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}}

Now, all that's left to do is to solve the time-independent Schrödinger equation to get ψ 1 ( x ) \psi^{*}_1(x) . I'm not going to go through this, but we end up getting:

ψ n ( x ) = 2 a sin ( n π x a ) \psi_n(x) \ = \ \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \ \sin \Big( \frac{n \pi x}{a} \Big)

Thus, we get:

c 1 ( 0 ) e i E 1 t 0 / = 0 a 1 a 2 a sin ( π x a ) d x = 2 2 π c_1(0) e^{-i E_1 t_0 / \hbar} \ = \ \displaystyle\int_{0}^{a} \ \frac{1}{\sqrt{a}} \sqrt{\frac{2}{a}} \ \sin \Big( \frac{\pi x}{a} \Big) \ dx \ = \ \frac{2 \sqrt{2}}{\pi}

Thus, we have:

c 1 ( 0 ) = 8 π 2 0.81056946913 |c_1(0) \ = \ \frac{8}{\pi^2} \ \approx \ 0.81056946913

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