m is in an infinite square well of width a . The particle is equally likely to be found in the region. What is the probability that a measurement of energy is found at ground state?
A particle of mass
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Let the position space wavefunction describing this system be given by Ψ ( x , t ) . We know that we can write the wavefunction as a linear combination of energy eigenfunctions:
Ψ ( x , t ) = n ∑ c n ( t ) ψ n ( x )
Now, we will have H ^ ψ n ( x ) = E n ψ n ( x ) . We also know that by the Schrödinger equation we will have:
i ℏ d t d Ψ = H ^ Ψ ⇒ i ℏ n ∑ d t d c n ( t ) ψ n ( x ) = n ∑ c n ( t ) E n ψ n ( x )
As each energy eigenfunction is orthonormal, we solve the general differential equation by matching up terms in the sums, getting c n ( t ) = c n ( 0 ) e − i E n t / ℏ . By Born's rules, we know that the probability of finding the particle in the n -th energy eigenstate is given by:
∣ c n ( t ) ∣ 2 = ∣ c n ( 0 ) e − i E n t / ℏ ∣ 2 = ∣ c n ( 0 ) ∣ 2
We know that at some time t 0 , the particle is equally likely to be found anywhere in the well. Thus, we will have Ψ ( x , t 0 ) = C , where C is some constant. We also know that:
Ψ ( x , t 0 ) = n ∑ c n ( 0 ) e − i E n t 0 / ℏ ψ n ( x )
Thus, since each ψ n ( x ) is orthonormal, multiplying by ψ i ∗ ( x ) and integrating will cancel all terms except for the i -th, where the integral of the eigenstate multiplied by its conjugate will be 1 , leaving c n ( 0 ) e − i E n t 0 / ℏ , where we multiply by its conjugate to get the final probability ∣ c n ( 0 ) ∣ 2 (the exponential cancels with its conjugate). Thus, we have:
c 1 ( 0 ) e − i E 1 t 0 / ℏ = ∫ 0 a Ψ ( x , t 0 ) ψ 1 ∗ ( x ) d x
By the normalization condition, we can find C :
∫ 0 a ∣ Ψ ( t 0 , x ) ∣ 2 d x = ∫ 0 a ∣ C ∣ 2 d x = 1 ⇒ C = a 1
Now, all that's left to do is to solve the time-independent Schrödinger equation to get ψ 1 ∗ ( x ) . I'm not going to go through this, but we end up getting:
ψ n ( x ) = a 2 sin ( a n π x )
Thus, we get:
c 1 ( 0 ) e − i E 1 t 0 / ℏ = ∫ 0 a a 1 a 2 sin ( a π x ) d x = π 2 2
Thus, we have:
∣ c 1 ( 0 ) = π 2 8 ≈ 0 . 8 1 0 5 6 9 4 6 9 1 3
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