Infinite sums can be manipulated!

Algebra Level 3

n = 1 1 ( 2 n 1 ) 2 \large \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{(2n-1)^2}

Given that ζ ( 2 ) = π 2 6 \zeta (2) = \dfrac {\pi^2}6 , find the value of the infinite sum above.

Notation: ζ ( s ) = n = 1 1 n s \displaystyle \zeta (s) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{n^s} for s C ( s ) > 1 s \in \mathbb C \ \forall \ \Re (s) > 1 denotes the Riemann zeta function .

π 2 2 \frac { { \pi }^{ 2 } }{ 2 } 1 1 π 2 3 \frac { { \pi }^{ 2 } }{ 3 } π 2 8 \frac { { \pi }^{ 2 } }{ 8 }

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1 solution

S = n = 1 1 ( 2 n 1 ) 2 = 1 + 1 3 2 + 1 5 2 + 1 7 2 + 1 9 2 + . . . = 1 + 1 2 2 + 1 3 2 + 1 4 2 + 1 5 2 + 1 6 2 + 1 7 2 + . . . ( 1 2 2 + 1 4 2 + 1 6 2 + 1 8 2 + . . . ) = 1 + 1 2 2 + 1 3 2 + 1 4 2 + 1 5 2 + . . . 1 2 2 ( 1 + 1 2 2 + 1 3 2 + 1 4 2 + 1 5 2 + . . . ) = n = 1 1 n 2 1 4 n = 1 1 n 2 = 3 4 ζ ( 2 ) = 3 4 × π 2 6 = π 2 8 \begin{aligned} S & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{(2n-1)^2} \\ & = 1 + \frac 1{3^2} + \frac 1{5^2} + \frac 1{7^2} + \frac 1{9^2} + ... \\ & = 1 + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{2^2}} + \frac 1{3^2} + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{4^2}} + \frac 1{5^2} + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{6^2}} + \frac 1{7^2} + ... \color{#D61F06}{-} \left(\color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{2^2}} + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{4^2}} + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{6^2}} + \color{#3D99F6}{\frac 1{8^2}} + ... \right) \\ & = 1 + \frac 1{2^2} + \frac 1{3^2} + \frac 1{4^2} + \frac 1{5^2} + ... - \frac 1{2^2} \left(1 + \frac 1{2^2} + \frac 1{3^2} + \frac 1{4^2} + \frac 1{5^2} + ... \right) \\ & = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{n^2} - \frac 14 \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac 1{n^2} \\ & = \frac 34 \zeta (2) = \frac 34 \times \frac {\pi^2}6 = \boxed{\dfrac {\pi^2}8} \end{aligned}

Tapas Mazumdar , I have changed the wording of your problem. You should use references in Brilliant if available instead of Wikipedia or other external ones. You can do a search in the search box on top.

Chew-Seong Cheong - 4 years, 9 months ago

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A great solution to the problem. P.S. Thanks for the word of advice. 😊

Tapas Mazumdar - 4 years, 9 months ago

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