Suppose axiom of choice is true. Let be an uncountable set and be a countable set. Which of these statements relate to ?
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The answer is B ; we always have ∣ A ∣ = ∣ A ∖ B ∣ .
First, the union of two countable sets is countable. There are many proofs on the internet , and hence I'll skip it. (The idea is to enumerate the elements of X , Y as x 1 , x 2 , … and y 1 , y 2 , … , and see x 1 , y 1 , x 2 , y 2 , … .)
Next, with this, if A ∖ B is countable then A = B ∪ ( A ∖ B ) will also be countable (since it's the union of two countable sets), contradicting the hypothesis in the problem. Thus A ∖ B is uncountable. However, it is not enough to show that A , A ∖ B are both uncountable, since there are infinitely many uncountable cardinal numbers. Thus we must proceed further.
Since Axiom of Choice holds, we know that ∣ A ∖ B ∣ > ∣ B ∣ (since A ∖ B is uncountable while B is countable, and Axiom of Choice implies that any countable cardinal is strictly smaller than any uncountable cardinal). By definition, there exists an injective function f from B to A ∖ B ; let the image be C . By definition of image, f is a bijection from B to C and is thus C is a countable subset of A ∖ B .
Enumerate the elements of B = { b 1 , b 2 , … } and C = { c 1 , c 2 , … } . Since C ⊂ A ∖ B , we know that B ∩ C = ∅ ; elements of C are taken from elements not in B .
Now define another function g : A → ( A ∖ B ) :
g ( x ) = ⎩ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎧ x c 2 i − 1 c 2 i if x ∈ / B , C if x = b i ∈ B if x = c i ∈ C
It's easy to see that g is a bijection. Any element not in either B or C is mapped identically (which is trivially a bijection), while g provides a bijection from the countable set B ∪ C to the countable set C . The existence of a bijection proves that both sets have equal cardinality; that is, ∣ A ∣ = ∣ A ∖ B ∣ .