Inspired by Chan Lye Lee

Algebra Level 5

If f ( x ) f(x) is the polynomial of degree 100 \leq 100 with f ( n ) = 2 n f(n)=2^n for all integers 0 n 101 0\leq n \leq 101 except n = 2 n=2 , find 1 f ( 2 ) 4 \frac{1}{f(2)-4} .


Inspiration .


The answer is 5050.

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2 solutions

Otto Bretscher
Apr 3, 2016

We know that k = 0 101 ( 1 ) k ( 101 k ) f ( k ) = 0 \sum_{k=0}^{101}(-1)^k{101 \choose k} f(k)=0 when deg ( f ) < 101 \deg(f)<101 and k = 0 101 ( 1 ) k ( 101 k ) 2 k \sum_{k=0}^{101}(-1)^k{101 \choose k}2^k = ( 2 1 ) 101 =-(2-1)^{101} = 1 =-1 . Since all the summands are the same except for k = 2 k=2 , it follows that ( 101 2 ) f ( 2 ) = ( 101 2 ) 4 + 1 {101 \choose 2}f(2)={101 \choose 2}4+1 and f ( 2 ) = 4 + 1 5050 f(2)=4+\frac{1}{5050} . The answer is 5050 \boxed{5050} .

How do we prove the first assertion? I've seen you use it many times though!

Edit: Just found an inductive proof, but, otherwise, how to prove it?

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 2 months ago

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There are several short proofs; my favourite is from combinatorics. Look at @Alan Yan 's solution here .

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 2 months ago

Please point out the mistake Let g(x) = 2f(x) - f(x+1) = K(x-1)(x-3)....(x-100) So degree of f(x) = 100 Now putting x=1 gives f(2)=4 , which is not possible. But why is it coming 4 then?

Deepanshu Vijay - 5 years, 2 months ago

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Why do you claim that g ( 1 ) = 0 g(1)=0 ?

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 2 months ago

Done beautifully :D

Billy Sugiarto - 5 years, 2 months ago
Mark Hennings
Apr 3, 2016

The polynomial u ( x ) = m = 0 98 ( x m ) u(x) \; = \; \sum_{m=0}^{98} \binom{x}{m} has degree 98 98 and is such that u ( m ) = 2 m u(m) = 2^m for 0 m 98 0 \le m \le 98 . Thus g ( x ) = 8 u ( x 3 ) g(x) = 8u(x-3) has degree 98 98 and is such that g ( m ) = 2 m g(m) = 2^m for 3 m 101 3 \le m \le 101 . Thus the polynomial we want is of the form f ( x ) = ( A x + B ) j = 3 101 ( j x ) + g ( x ) , f(x) \; = \; (Ax + B)\prod_{j=3}^{101}(j-x) + g(x) \;, where A A and B B are constants chosen so that 1 = f ( 0 ) = 101 ! 2 B + g ( 0 ) 2 = f ( 1 ) = ( A + B ) 100 ! + g ( 1 ) . 1 \; = \; f(0) \; = \; \tfrac{101!}{2}B + g(0) \qquad \qquad 2 \; = \; f(1) \; = \; (A + B)100! + g(1) \;. Thus f ( 2 ) = ( 2 A + B ) 99 ! + g ( 2 ) = 402 202 g ( 1 ) + 2 g ( 0 ) 10100 + g ( 2 ) , f(2) \; = \; (2A+B)99! + g(2) \; = \; \frac{402 - 202g(1) + 2g(0)}{10100} + g(2) \;, With g ( 0 ) = 20000 g(0) = 20000 , g ( 1 ) = 400 g(1) = 400 and g ( 2 ) = 8 g(2) = 8 , we obtain f ( 2 ) = 20201 5050 f(2) = \tfrac{20201}{5050} , and hence the answer is 1 f ( 2 ) 4 = 5050 \tfrac{1}{f(2) - 4} \,=\, \boxed{5050} .

How do we see that g(x) must be 8u(x-3)?

Saurabh Chaturvedi - 5 years, 2 months ago

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The polynomial u ( x ) u(x) takes values 1 , 2 , , 2 98 1,2,\ldots,2^{98} at 0 , 1 , , 98 0,1,\ldots,98 . The polynomial u ( x 3 ) u(x-3) is a translate of u u , and so takes the values 1 , 2 , , 2 98 1,2,\ldots,2^{98} at 3 , 4 , , 101 3,4,\ldots,101 . Scaling by 8 8 gives us g g , which takes the desired values of 8 , 16 , , 2 101 8,16,\ldots, 2^{101} at 3 , 4 , , 101 3,4,\ldots,101 .

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 2 months ago

How to obtain the value of g ( 0 ) , g ( 1 ) , g ( 2 ) g(0), g(1), g(2) ? I thought g ( 0 ) = g ( 1 ) = g ( 2 ) = 0 g(0)= g(1)= g(2)= 0 .

Billy Sugiarto - 5 years, 2 months ago

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No. For example, g ( 2 ) = 8 u ( 1 ) = 8 m = 0 98 ( 1 m ) = 8 m = 0 98 ( 1 ) m = 8 g(2) \;=\;8u(-1)\;=\;8\sum_{m=0}^{98}\binom{-1}{m}\;=\;8\sum_{m=0}^{98}(-1)^m\;=\;8 and g ( 1 ) = 8 u ( 2 ) = 8 m = 0 98 ( 2 m ) = m = 0 98 ( 1 ) m ( m + 1 ) = 400 g(1)\;=\;8u(-2)\;=\;8\sum_{m=0}^{98}\binom{-2}{m}\;=\;\sum_{m=0}^{98}(-1)^m(m+1)\;=\;400 By putting a variable like x x in the top argument, we need to generalize the binomial coefficient, so that ( x m ) = x ( x 1 ) ( x m + 1 ) m ! \binom{x}{m}\;=\; \frac{x(x-1)\cdots(x-m+1)}{m!} is a polynomial in x x .

Mark Hennings - 5 years, 2 months ago

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