Inspired by Dev Sharma

Calculus Level 1

Which is greater?

100 ! or 1 0 162 ? 100! \text{ or } 10 ^{162} ?

You may use the fact that e 5 > 148 e^ 5 > 148 .


Inspiration

100 ! 100! 1 0 162 10^{162}

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1 solution

Calvin Lin Staff
Aug 14, 2015

There is no need to resort to wolfram alpha to prove that the 1 0 162 10 ^ {162} is greater.

Let's factor out 100 from both sides, and then take logarithms. We thus want to compare
i = 1 99 ln x VS 160 ln 10 \sum_{i=1} ^ {99 } \ln x \text{ VS } 160 \ln 10

Observe that the sum can be over-approximated by the Riemann sum of 1 100 ln x d x \int_1 ^ {100} \, \ln x \, dx , which is equal to [ x ( ln x 1 ) ] 1 100 = 100 ( ln 100 1 ) [ x ( \ln x - 1) ]_{1}^{100} = 100 ( \ln 100 - 1) .

We thus want to compare

200 ln 10 100 ? ? 160 ln 10 40 ln 10 ? ? 100 ln 10 ? ? 5 2 100 ? ? e 5 \begin{array} { l l l } 200 \ln 10 - 100 & ?? & 160 \ln 10 \\ 40 \ln 10 & ?? & 100 \\ \ln 10 & ?? & \frac{5}{2} \\ 100 & ?? & e^ 5 \\ \end{array}

And since e 5 = 148 e ^ 5 = 148 , hence we see that the RHS is larger.


Note: According to Wolfram Alpha, 100 ! < 1 0 158 100 ! < 10 ^ {158} . How can we improve to this bound?

To improve on the bound, we need to know the values of log 10 ( 2 ) , log 10 ( e ) , log 10 ( π ) \log_{10}(2), \log_{10} (e), \log_{10} (\pi) beforehand up to certain desired accuracy.

Apply the asymptotic formula for Stirling series :

n ! = 2 π n ( n e ) 2 ( 1 + 1 12 n + 1 288 n 2 139 51840 n 3 571 2488320 n 4 + ) n! = \sqrt{2\pi n} \left(\frac ne\right)^2 \left(1 + \frac1{12n} + \frac{1}{288n^2} - \frac{139}{51840n^3} - \frac{571}{2488320n^4} + \ldots \right)

Computing with ln \ln instead of log 10 \log_{10} then just divide the result by ln ( 10 ) \ln(10) :

ln ( n ! ) = ( ln ( n ) 1 ) n + ln ( 2 π ) + 1 2 ln ( n ) + 1 12 n 1 360 n 3 + O ( n 5 ) \ln(n!) = (\ln(n) - 1) n + \ln(\sqrt{2\pi}) + \frac12 \ln(n) + \frac1{12n} - \frac1{360n^3} + O(n^{-5}) .

For n = 100 n = 100 , we just need to show that the following inequality is true.

201 100 ln ( 10 ) + ln ( 2 π ) 2 ln ( 10 ) = 201 100 log 10 e + 1 2 log 10 ( 2 π ) < 158 201 - \frac{100}{\ln(10)} + \frac{\ln(2\pi)}{2 \ln(10)} = 201 - 100 \log_{10} e + \frac12 \log_{10} (2\pi) < 158

And we're done.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Good. I was also going to say this.

Satyajit Mohanty - 5 years, 10 months ago

Yes, unfortunately in order to get a tighter bound, we have to start obtaining the value of more constants.

Another approach that I was thinking of, is to bound the first few terms tighter, since they contribute the most error. For example, if we can bound i = 1 9 ln i \sum_{i=1}^9 \ln i 13 because, 9 ! < 2. 7 13 < e 13 9! < 2.7^{13} < e^{13} , then the LHS would be bounded by

100 ( ln 100 1 ) 10 ( ln 10 1 ) + 13 < 190 ln 10 77 100 ( \ln 100 - 1 ) - 10 ( \ln 10 - 1 ) + 13 < 190 \ln 10 -77

And since 190 ln 10 77 < 157 ln 10 190 \ln 10 - 77 < 157 \ln 10 , we can conclude that 100 ! < 1 0 159 100! < 10^{159 } (remember to add back the 100 that we factored out initially).

To tighten this further using this method, we have to hunt down much more terms.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Yes, we need more information for tighter bounds. It's best left for a computer to solve this. Even knowing the inequality 9 ! < 2. 7 13 < e 13 9! < 2.7^{13} < e^{13} looks very out of place.

A better follow up question would probably be:

i) What is the largest integer n n such that n ! < 1 0 162 n! < 10^{162} ?

ii) What is the smallest integer n n such that n ! > 1 0 162 n! > 10^{162} ?

iii) What is the first 6 (leftmost) digits of ( 100 ! ) (100!) ?

iii) After removing the trailing zeroes, what is the last 6 digits of ( 100 ! ) (100!) ?

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 10 months ago

My way js - sknce 100!= 100x99x98x97x96x95x94x93...3x2x1x0! & 10^162=100^81 which means 100x100x100x100x100x100x100.... Clearly, 100>99 or 98 or97 , 100^162> 100! .

Yajur Phullera - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Nope. It doesn't work. You missed out on a lot of crucial steps. What you have left is:

10 0 80 ? ? 99 ! 100^{80} \qquad ? ? \qquad 99!

That's all.

Pi Han Goh - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Yeah thanks i realised my mistake there. 😊😊

Yajur Phullera - 5 years, 10 months ago

But what about the other 19 numbers that you didn't get to compare against?

I agree that 100 ! < 10 0 100 = 1 0 200 100 ! < 100 ^ {100} = 10^{200} . But it's not immediately clear what to do with the rest.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 10 months ago

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Got my mistake thanks .

Yajur Phullera - 5 years, 10 months ago

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