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To improve on the bound, we need to know the values of lo g 1 0 ( 2 ) , lo g 1 0 ( e ) , lo g 1 0 ( π ) beforehand up to certain desired accuracy.
Apply the asymptotic formula for Stirling series :
n ! = 2 π n ( e n ) 2 ( 1 + 1 2 n 1 + 2 8 8 n 2 1 − 5 1 8 4 0 n 3 1 3 9 − 2 4 8 8 3 2 0 n 4 5 7 1 + … )
Computing with ln instead of lo g 1 0 then just divide the result by ln ( 1 0 ) :
ln ( n ! ) = ( ln ( n ) − 1 ) n + ln ( 2 π ) + 2 1 ln ( n ) + 1 2 n 1 − 3 6 0 n 3 1 + O ( n − 5 ) .
For n = 1 0 0 , we just need to show that the following inequality is true.
2 0 1 − ln ( 1 0 ) 1 0 0 + 2 ln ( 1 0 ) ln ( 2 π ) = 2 0 1 − 1 0 0 lo g 1 0 e + 2 1 lo g 1 0 ( 2 π ) < 1 5 8
And we're done.
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Good. I was also going to say this.
Yes, unfortunately in order to get a tighter bound, we have to start obtaining the value of more constants.
Another approach that I was thinking of, is to bound the first few terms tighter, since they contribute the most error. For example, if we can bound ∑ i = 1 9 ln i 13 because, 9 ! < 2 . 7 1 3 < e 1 3 , then the LHS would be bounded by
1 0 0 ( ln 1 0 0 − 1 ) − 1 0 ( ln 1 0 − 1 ) + 1 3 < 1 9 0 ln 1 0 − 7 7
And since 1 9 0 ln 1 0 − 7 7 < 1 5 7 ln 1 0 , we can conclude that 1 0 0 ! < 1 0 1 5 9 (remember to add back the 100 that we factored out initially).
To tighten this further using this method, we have to hunt down much more terms.
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Yes, we need more information for tighter bounds. It's best left for a computer to solve this. Even knowing the inequality 9 ! < 2 . 7 1 3 < e 1 3 looks very out of place.
A better follow up question would probably be:
i) What is the largest integer n such that n ! < 1 0 1 6 2 ?
ii) What is the smallest integer n such that n ! > 1 0 1 6 2 ?
iii) What is the first 6 (leftmost) digits of ( 1 0 0 ! ) ?
iii) After removing the trailing zeroes, what is the last 6 digits of ( 1 0 0 ! ) ?
My way js - sknce 100!= 100x99x98x97x96x95x94x93...3x2x1x0! & 10^162=100^81 which means 100x100x100x100x100x100x100.... Clearly, 100>99 or 98 or97 , 100^162> 100! .
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Nope. It doesn't work. You missed out on a lot of crucial steps. What you have left is:
1 0 0 8 0 ? ? 9 9 !
That's all.
But what about the other 19 numbers that you didn't get to compare against?
I agree that 1 0 0 ! < 1 0 0 1 0 0 = 1 0 2 0 0 . But it's not immediately clear what to do with the rest.
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There is no need to resort to wolfram alpha to prove that the 1 0 1 6 2 is greater.
Let's factor out 100 from both sides, and then take logarithms. We thus want to compare
i = 1 ∑ 9 9 ln x VS 1 6 0 ln 1 0
Observe that the sum can be over-approximated by the Riemann sum of ∫ 1 1 0 0 ln x d x , which is equal to [ x ( ln x − 1 ) ] 1 1 0 0 = 1 0 0 ( ln 1 0 0 − 1 ) .
We thus want to compare
2 0 0 ln 1 0 − 1 0 0 4 0 ln 1 0 ln 1 0 1 0 0 ? ? ? ? ? ? ? ? 1 6 0 ln 1 0 1 0 0 2 5 e 5
And since e 5 = 1 4 8 , hence we see that the RHS is larger.
Note: According to Wolfram Alpha, 1 0 0 ! < 1 0 1 5 8 . How can we improve to this bound?