If tan ( β ) = 1 − n sin 2 ( ω ) n sin ( ω ) cos ( ω )
Find the value of 0 ∫ π / 4 1 − n tan ( ω − β ) d ω
Answer up to to three decimal places.
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Clearly, the answer does not depend on the value of n taken. So we put n = 0 to obtain tan β = 0.
The integral then reduces to tan ω , which is equal to ln ( sec ω ) ∣ 0 4 π in the given question.
Why the answer is not depending on n? Could you explain
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Had the answer would have depended on n, the answer should not have come as a constant value :)
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On multiplying and dividing by cos 2 ( ω )
tan ( β ) = sec 2 ( ω ) − n tan 2 ( ω ) n tan ( ω )
tan ( β ) = 1 + ( 1 − n ) tan 2 ( ω ) n tan ( ω )
if we place n=2 and recall identity of tan 2 x
Thus we have tan ( β ) = tan ( 2 ω ) or β = 2 ω
Now we have to integrate 1 − 2 tan ( ω − 2 ω ) ,in short tan ( ω )
ln ( sec ω ) ∣ 0 4 π
The final answer is 2 1 ln ( 2 )