Inspired by Zandra Vinegar

True or false :

\quad\quad For all positive integers a a , ( a 2 ) ! ( a ! ) 2 (a^2)! \geq (a!)^2 holds true.

Clarification : ! ! denotes the factorial notation.


Inspiration .

True False Neither true nor false

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1 solution

Kay Xspre
Feb 12, 2016

We know that a 2 ! a ! 1 \frac{a^2!}{a!} \geq 1 . (of which the equation will be true when a = 1 a = 1 ). For a 2 a \geq 2 , if we divide both sides with ( a ! ) 2 (a!)^2 , we will get that

a ! a ! × i = 1 a ( a + i ) i × a 2 ! ( 2 a ) ! 1 \frac{a!}{a!} \times \prod_{i=1}^a \frac{(a+i)}{i} \times\frac{a^2!}{(2a)!} \geq 1

Brilliant solution sir!

Mehul Arora - 5 years, 4 months ago

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