A function f : R → R satisfies the following ∣ f ( x ) − f ( y ) ∣ f ( 3 ) ≤ ∣ x − y ∣ 3 = 1 1 . Find the value of f ( 2 0 1 6 ) .
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(Edit: This comment is not correct)
But you are assuming that f is differentiable.
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No, I have proved it is. The condition shows that the limit exists.
If f : R → R satisfies: ∣ f ( x ) − f ( y ) ∣ ≤ ∣ x − y ∣ 3 f ( 3 ) = 1 1 then f ( x ) = 1 1 , ∀ x ∈ R .
Proof .-
∀ ϵ > 0 "very small", ∃ n ∈ N such that n 2 1 < ϵ (Archimedes property). Then, due to triangular inequality ∣ f ( 4 ) − f ( 3 ) ∣ ≤ ∣ f ( 4 ) − f ( 4 − 1 / n ) ∣ + ∣ f ( 4 − 1 / n ) − f ( 4 − 2 / n ) ∣ + ∣ f ( 4 − 2 / n ) − f ( 4 − 3 / n ) ∣ + . . . + ∣ f ( 4 − ( n − 1 ) / n ) − f ( 3 ) ∣ ≤ ≤ n ⋅ ( n 3 1 ) = n 2 1 < ϵ . This implies that f ( 4 ) = f ( 3 ) . With the same reasoning f ( n ) = f ( 3 ) = 1 1 , ∀ n ∈ Z . And with a similar reasoning, f ( x ) = 1 1 , ∀ x ∈ R .
Nice! Your solution doesn't need to assume that the function is differentiable :)
How n 3 1 came here ???
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from the first inequality, ∣ f ( x ) − f ( y ) ∣ ≤ ∣ x − y ∣ 3 , for example, ∣ f ( 4 − 1 / n ) − f ( 4 − 2 / n ) ∣ ≤ ∣ 4 − 1 / n − 4 + 2 / n ∣ 3 = n 3 1
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The condition tells us that ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ x − y f ( x ) − f ( y ) ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ ≤ ∣ x − y ∣ 2 and so, letting y tend to x , we see that f is differentiable, with f ′ ( x ) = 0 for all x . Thus f is constant, making the answer 1 1 .