Integer Problem With An Integer Answer

Find the sum of all integers n > 1 n > 1 such that

2 n + 1 n 2 \frac{2^n+1}{n^2}

is an integer.


The answer is 3.

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1 solution

Victor Loh
Jul 27, 2014

It is easy to guess that n = 3 n=3 is a unique solution. Let us prove it.

We divide the proof into several steps. The first step is to consider the minimal prime divisor p p of n n , and from n ( 2 n + 1 ) n \mid (2^n +1) we can deduce p = 3 p=3 .


Proof:

Clearly n n is odd. Let r 1 r_1 be the order of 2 2 modulo p p . By 2 n 1 ( m o d n ) 2^n \equiv -1 \pmod{n} we have

2 2 n 1 ( m o d p ) ( 1 ) 2^{2n}\equiv 1\pmod{p}\cdots(1)

As p 3 p \geq 3 , by Fermat's Little Theorem, we get

2 p 1 1 ( m o d p ) ( 2 ) 2^{p-1}\equiv 1\pmod{p}\cdots(2)

( 1 ) (1) and ( 2 ) (2) and the properties of order imply r 1 2 n r_1 \mid 2n and r 1 ( p 1 ) r_1 \mid (p-1) , so r 1 gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) r_1 \mid \gcd(2n,p-1) . It is easy to prove gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) = 2 \gcd(2n,p-1)=2 . This is because from 2 ∤ n 2 \not\mid n one has 2 gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) 2\mid \gcd(2n,p-1) , and 2 2 ∤ gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) 2^2\not\mid \gcd(2n,p-1) . On the other hand, if there is an odd prime q q such that q gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) q\mid \gcd(2n,p-1) , then q ( p 1 ) q\mid (p-1) and q n q\mid n , but the former shows q < p q<p . This contradicts the fact that p p is the minimal prime divisor of n n . So gcd ( 2 n , p 1 ) = 2 \gcd(2n,p-1)=2 , thus r 1 = 2 r_1=2 , and p = 3 p=3 .


Hence we can assume

n = 3 m c , m 1 , 3 ∤ c ( 3 ) n=3^mc, m\geq 1, 3\not\mid c\cdots(3)

In the second step, we prove m = 1 m=1 . By n 2 ( 2 n + 1 ) n^2 \mid (2^n+1) we have 2 3 m c 1 ( m o d 3 2 m ) 2^{3^mc}\equiv -1\pmod{3^{2m}} , thus

2 2 × 3 m c 1 ( m o d 3 2 m ) ( 4 ) 2^{2\times3^mc}\equiv 1\pmod{3^{2m}}\cdots(4)

If m 2 m\geq 2 , then we get that the order of 2 2 modulo 3 2 m 3^{2m} is 2 × 3 2 m 1 2\times 3^{2m-1} (The proof is left as an exercise to the reader). So ( 4 ) (4) implies 2 × 3 2 m 1 2 × 3 m c 2\times 3^{2m-1}\mid 2\times 3^mc , i.e. 3 m 1 c 3^{m-1}\mid c . Thus 3 c 3\mid c (as m 2 m\geq 2 ), which contradicts 3 ∤ c 3\not\mid c in ( 3 ) (3) . So m = 1 m=1 .

In the third step, we prove c = 1 c=1 in ( 3 ) (3) . This can be done similarly as the first step.

If c > 1 c>1 , let s s be the least prime divisor of c c , then

2 3 c 1 ( m o d s ) ( 5 ) 2^{3c}\equiv -1 \pmod{s}\cdots(5)

Let r 2 r_2 be the order of 2 2 modulo s s . By ( 5 ) (5) we have 2 6 c 1 ( m o d s ) 2^{6c}\equiv 1\pmod{s} . Furthermore we also have 2 s 1 1 ( m o d s ) 2^{s-1}\equiv 1\pmod{s} , so r 2 6 c r_2 \mid 6c and r 2 ( s 1 ) r_2 \mid (s-1) , thus r 2 gcd ( 6 c , s 1 ) r_2 \mid \gcd(6c,s-1) . According to the choice of s s we have gcd ( s 1 , c ) = 1 \gcd(s-1,c)=1 , so r 2 6 r_2\mid 6 . Also, 2 r 2 1 ( m o d s ) 2^{r_2}\equiv 1\pmod{s} implies s = 3 s=3 or 7 7 . It is easy to see that s = 3 s=3 is impossible, and by ( 5 ) (5) , s = 7 s=7 is impossible too. Thus c = 1 c=1 , and n = 3 n=3 .

Note that if we first prove c = 1 c=1 in ( 3 ) (3) , then it would not work well. Here the order of proof is very important. Besides, the identity m = 1 m=1 in the second step can also be proved by comparing the powers of primes as follows.

It follows from the binomial theorem that

2 n + 1 = ( 3 1 ) n + 1 = 3 n + k = 2 n ( 1 ) k ( n k ) 3 k ( 6 ) 2^n+1=(3-1)^n+1=3n+\sum_{k=2}^{n}(-1)^k \binom{n}{k}3^k\cdots(6)

Let 3 a k ! 3^a \mid k! . Then

α = l = 1 [ k 3 l ] < l = 1 k 3 l = k 2 . \alpha=\sum_{l=1}^{\infty}\left[\frac{k}{3^l}\right]<\sum_{l=1}^{\infty}\frac{k}{3^l}=\frac{k}{2}.

Thus by

( n k ) 3 k = n ( n 1 ) ( n k + 1 ) k ! 3 k \binom{n}{k}3^k = \frac{n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)}{k!}3^k

we have that ( n k ) 3 k \binom{n}{k}3^k is divisible by 3 β 3^{\beta} , and β \beta satisfies (note that k 2 k\geq 2 )

β k + m α > k + m k 2 m + 1 , \beta\geq k+m-\alpha>k+m-\frac{k}{2}\geq m+1,

so β m + 2. \beta \geq m+2. Thus the sum on the right side of ( 6 ) (6) is divisible by 3 m + 2 3^{m+2} . If m > 1 m>1 , then 2 m m + 2 , 2m\geq m+2, so it follows from 3 2 m ( 2 n + 1 ) 3^{2m}\mid (2^n+1) and ( 6 ) (6) that 3 m + 2 3 n 3^{m+2}\mid 3^n , i.e. 3 m + 1 n 3^{m+1}\mid n , in contradiction with ( 3 ) (3) . Thus m = 1 m=1 .

Hence the conclusion is proven, and we are done.

Your proof that 3 n 3\mid n could've been a lot shorter: 2 n + 1 = 3 ( 2 n 1 2 n 2 + 2 + 1 ) 2^n+1=3(2^{n-1}-2^{n-2}+\cdots-2+1) , since n n is odd.

mathh mathh - 6 years, 10 months ago

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Good point :D

Victor Loh - 6 years, 10 months ago

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What book on NT are you reading?Because on one place you said "the proof is left to the reader", so obviously you have taken it from some book.

Bogdan Simeonov - 6 years, 10 months ago

Your proof has left me in tears!! :(

Krishna Ar - 6 years, 10 months ago

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WHY WHY WHY..........

:)

ashutosh mahapatra - 6 years, 10 months ago

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Coz....it's toooooooo long!

Krishna Ar - 6 years, 10 months ago

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