∫ 0 e x 3 x 4 x 5 . . . d x = a b c .
What is a + b + c ?
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Nice question!
Note, however, that
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could be an alternative answer.
A less ambiguous way to frame the question might be to say that the integral is equal to a 1 b a and to ask for, e.g., a + b .
The integrand is x 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + . . . = x e − 2 . So the value of the integral is e − 1 e e − 1 . Hence a = e − 1 1 , b = e , c = e − 1 and a + b + c = e − 1 2 e 2 − 3 e + 2 ≈ 5 . 0 1 8 5 4 0 3 6 3 7 9
I = ∫ 0 e x 3 x 4 x 5 ⋯ d x = ∫ 0 e ( x ( x ( x ( ⋯ ) 5 1 ) 4 1 ) 3 1 ) 2 1 d x = ∫ 0 e x 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + ⋯ d x = ∫ 0 e x e − 2 d x = e − 1 x e − 1 ∣ ∣ ∣ ∣ 0 e = e − 1 e e − 1
Therefore a + b + c = e − 1 1 + e + e − 1 ≈ 5 . 0 1 9 .
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A good way to solve this problem is to use partial sums and then extrapolate the series.
x = x 2 1
x 3 x = x 2 3 1 + 1 = x 6 1 + 2 1 = x 3 2
x 3 x 4 x = x 2 3 4 1 + 1 + 1 = x 2 4 1 + 6 1 + 2 1 = x 2 4 1 7
x 3 x 4 x 5 x = x 1 2 0 1 + 2 4 1 + 6 1 + 2 1 = x 6 0 4 3
If this process was repeated infinitely many times, it appears that the radicals would equal x k where k = ∑ 2 ∞ n ! 1 = 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + . . .
Recall that the Maclaurin series for e x is e x = 1 + x + 2 ! x 2 + 3 ! x 3 + . . . . Thus, e − 2 = 2 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 + . . .
The integral now becomes ∫ 0 e x e − 2 d x . Solving yields e − 1 1 x e − 1 ∣ 0 e = e − 1 1 e e − 1 .
Therefore a = e − 1 1 , b = e , c = e − 1 and a + b + c = 5 . 0 1 8 5 4