Integral Integral 56

Calculus Level 2

0 π 2 sinh 1 ( tan ( x ) ) d x = a G \large \int_0^{\frac{\pi }{2}} \sinh ^{-1}(\tan (x)) \, dx=aG

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Notation: G G denotes the Catalan's constant .


The answer is 2.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
Dec 24, 2017

From the formula for sinh 1 \sinh^{-1} is it clear that sinh 1 ( tan x ) = ln ( sec x + tan x ) \sinh^{-1}(\tan x) \,=\, \ln(\sec x + \tan x) . Thus the substitution u = sec x + tan x u = \sec x + \tan x gives 0 1 2 π sinh 1 ( tan x ) d x = 0 1 2 π ln ( sec x + tan x ) d x = 1 ln u × 2 d u u 2 + 1 = 2 1 ln u u 2 + 1 d u = 2 0 1 ln u u 2 + 1 d u = 2 G \begin{aligned} \int_0^{\frac12\pi} \sinh^{-1}(\tan x)\,dx & = \; \int_0^{\frac12\pi}\ln(\sec x + \tan x)\,dx \; = \; \int_1^\infty \ln u \times \frac{2\,du}{u^2 + 1} \\ & = \; 2\int_1^\infty \frac{\ln u}{u^2 + 1}\,du \; = \; -2\int_0^1 \frac{\ln u}{u^2 + 1}\,du \; = \; 2G \end{aligned} making the answer 2 \boxed{2} .

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