∫ − 1 1 sin − 1 ( x ) cos − 1 ( x ) tan − 1 ( x ) d x = 8 1 π 2 ( − 2 lo g ( a − b 2 ) − 4 2 + π + 4 )
where a , b are positive integers. Submit a + b .
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By substituting x to − x we find that
∫ − 1 1 arcsin x arccos x arctan x d x = 2 π ∫ − 1 1 arcsin x arctan x d x
Now,
∫ − 1 1 arcsin x arctan x d x = 4 π 2 − ∫ − 1 1 ( 1 − x 2 x arctan x + 1 + x 2 x arcsin x ) d x
∫ − 1 1 ( 1 − x 2 x arctan x + 1 + x 2 x arcsin x ) d x = 2 π ln 2 − ∫ − 1 1 ( 2 1 − x 2 ln 1 + x 2 − 1 + x 2 1 − x 2 ) d x
Now comes the real beauty :D. Let
J ( a ) = ∫ − 1 1 ( 1 − x 2 ln 1 + a 2 x 2 ) d x
Then
J ′ ( a ) = ∫ − 1 1 ( ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 2 a x 2 ) d x = 1 + a 2 2 a ( ∫ − 1 1 ( − ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 + 1 − x 2 1 ) d x ) = 1 + a 2 2 a π − 1 + a 2 2 a ∫ − 1 1 ( ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 ) d x
Now let
K ( a ) = ∫ − 1 1 ( ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 ) d x
K ( a ) = ∫ − 1 1 ( ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 ) d x = a 1 ∫ − 1 1 ( 1 − x 2 x arctan ( a x ) ) d x
( a K ) ′ ( a ) = ∫ − 1 1 ( ( 1 + a 2 x 2 ) 1 − x 2 x 2 ) d x = 2 a J ′
So, we have
( a K ) ′ = 2 a J ′ and
J ′ = 1 + a 2 2 a π − 1 + a 2 2 a K
So,
K + a K ′ = 1 + a 2 π − 1 + a 2 K
K ′ + K ( a 2 − 1 + a 2 a ) = a ( 1 + a 2 ) π
So,
K = a 2 π ( 1 + a 2 + c )
And we want
K ( 0 ) = ∫ − 1 1 1 − x 2 d x = 2 π = a 2 π ( 1 + a 2 + c )
So, c=-1
Now,
2 J ′ = π ( a 1 + 1 + a 2 a − a 1 + a 2 )
The hardest integral here should(?) be the last term and so, I will give a clue of how I have done it.
Hint:Let a = tan θ
2 J = π ( ln ( 1 + 1 + a 2 ) + c )
And we want J ( 0 ) = 0
So, J ( a ) = 2 π ( ln ( 1 + 1 + a 2 ) − ln 2 )
Combining all these together and recall that the integrals we want is when a=1, we get
∫ − 1 1 arcsin x arccos x arctan x d x = 8 π 2 ( − 2 ln ( 2 4 − 1 6 2 ) − 4 2 + π + 4 )
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We need the result of this other question. Note that the substitution y = − x gives ∫ − 1 1 sin − 1 x cos − 1 x tan − 1 x d x = ∫ − 1 1 sin − 1 y ( π − cos − 1 y ) tan − 1 y d y so that ∫ − 1 1 sin − 1 x cos − 1 x tan − 1 x d x = 2 1 π ∫ − 1 1 sin − 1 x tan − 1 x d x Manipulating the answer to the previous question, we see that the answer is 8 1 π 2 ( − 2 ln ( 2 4 − 1 6 2 ) − 4 2 + π + 4 ) making the answer 2 4 + 1 6 = 4 0 .