If integral is defined as above and what is
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Let I ( m , n ) = ∫ 0 π cos m ( x + sin n x ) d x m , n ∈ N Then, using some symmetry and the complex substitution z = e i x , I ( m , n ) = 2 1 ∫ − π π cos m ( x + sin n x ) d x = 2 1 ∫ − π π e i m ( x + sin n x ) d x = 2 1 ∫ ∣ z ∣ = 1 z m e 2 1 m ( z n − z − n ) i z d z = 2 i 1 ∫ ∣ z ∣ = 1 F m , n ( z ) z d z where F m , n ( z ) = z m e 2 1 m ( z n − z − n ) is holomorphic on C \ { 0 } , and has an isolated essential singularity at 0 . Thus I ( m , n ) = π R e s z = 0 z − 1 F m , n ( z ) is equal to π times the constant term in the Laurent expansion of F m , n ( z ) about 0 . But since F m , n ( z ) = u , v ≥ 0 ∑ u ! v ! ( 2 1 m ) u + v ( − 1 ) v z m + n ( u − v ) z = 0 we see that I ( m , n ) = 0 except when n divides m . This is all we need for this question (the integrals I ( k n , n ) can be evaluated in terms of Bessel functions, however).
Since sin 4 θ ≡ 8 1 cos 4 θ − 2 1 cos 2 θ + 8 3 we deduce that ∫ 0 π sin 4 ( x + sin 3 x ) d x = 8 1 I ( 4 , 3 ) − 2 1 I ( 2 , 3 ) + 8 3 π = 8 3 π making the required answer 6 3 × 8 = 4 .