Integration -2

Calculus Level 4

If I ( a ) = 0 tan 1 ( a x ) tan 1 x x d x \displaystyle I(a) = \int_0^\infty \dfrac{\tan^{-1} (ax) - \tan^{-1} x }x \, dx , then of which of the following is/are true?

Choose the most precise option.

(A): I ( 1 ) , I ( 2 ) , I ( 3 ) I'(1) , I'(2), I'(3) follows a harmonic progression .
(B): I ( 2 ) = π 4 I'(2) = \dfrac \pi 4 .
(C): I ( π ) = π ln π 4 I(\pi) = \dfrac {\pi \ln \pi} 4 .
(D): I ( 3 ) = π 6 I'(3) = \dfrac \pi 6 .

C A,B,C A,B,C,D A,B,D

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2 solutions

Spandan Senapati
Apr 23, 2017

This integral is popularly known as Frullani's Integral.Of the form of f ( b x ) f ( a x ) / x d x = ( f ( i n f i n i t e ) f ( 0 ) ) l n ( b / a ) \int f(bx)-f(ax)/x dx=(f(infinite)-f(0))ln(b/a) with the limits from 0 i n f i n i t e 0-infinite .And for the function f ( i n f i n i t e ) f(infinite) and f ( 0 ) f(0) exist.Like for the function a r c t a n x arctanx .So now its quite easy I ( a ) = π / 2 l n a I(a)=π/2lna .Thus I ( a ) = π / 2 a I'(a)=π/2a .So now its easy to find the values of I ( 1 ) = π / 2 , I ( 2 ) = π / 4 , I ( 3 ) = π / 6 I'(1)=π/2,I'(2)=π/4,I'(3)=π/6 .Clearly they form an H P HP and I ( π ) = π / 2 l n ( π ) I(π)=π/2ln(π) .So A , B , C , D A,B,C,D are correct.The integral can be evaluated using Feynman's Trick(Special case of Newton-Leibnitz formula)

Ya...frullani is awesome!!!

A Former Brilliant Member - 4 years, 1 month ago

I got A,B,D. :P.. I didnt knew about the integral :(

Md Zuhair - 2 years, 8 months ago
Sanjoy Kundu
Jan 5, 2019

Trivial by Differentiation Under the Integral

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