⎝ ⎛ ∫ 1 0 ln y 1 1 d y ⎠ ⎞ 2 = ?
Give your answer correct to 4 decimal places.
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Good clear explanation.
Nice solution, i wasnt aware of this form but worked it out by subbing − ln ( y ) = x PS, i forgot the value of pi, so my first attempt was wrong(3.4216).... got it in the second:p
Dude you are prepared, now let's start the junior integration contest!
Nice solution!!
ohh my boy has grown up and i am the same as you now i can do it with @Aditya Kumar and @Nihar Mahajan
lets just take the integral and rewrite it
∫ 1 0 ( − l n ( y ) ) − 1 / 2
Using u sub where u = − l n ( y ) ; d u = − d y / y ; y = e − u ; d y = − y d u ; and d y = − e − u d u
We can rewrite the integral as
− ∫ 0 ∞ u 1 e − u d u
Make a new substitution u = v 2 ; d u = 2 v d v
and we get
− ∫ 0 ∞ v 1 e − v 2 2 v d v
simplify
− 2 ∫ 0 ∞ e − v 2 d v
This is a known integral, the indefinite integral of e − x 2 is defined as the e r f ( x ) and the integral from 0 to infinity is known to be π / 2
so plug that in
− 2 × π / 2
− π
square this, and you get π for the answer.
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Aim: To prove that Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 1 ( ln y 1 ) n − 1 d y .
Proof:
We know by definition , Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 ∞ x n − 1 e − x d x .
Now substitute x = ln y 1 ⇒ y = e − x ⇒ d y = − e − x d x . Also note that as x = 0 , y = 1 and as x → ∞ , y = 0 and we change the limits accordingly. Hence we have
Γ ( n ) = − ∫ 1 0 ( ln y 1 ) n − 1 = ∫ 0 1 ( ln y 1 ) n − 1 d y
which was to be proved :)
Now we use Γ ( n ) = ∫ 0 1 ( ln y 1 ) n − 1 d y .In this problem , n = 2 1 , hence ,
∫ 0 1 ln y 1 1 d y = − ∫ 1 0 ln y 1 1 d y = − Γ ( 2 1 ) = − π
Since we are asked to find the square , we have the answer as π ≈ 3 . 1 4 1 5 .