You're Just So Integreat

Calculus Level 4

( 1 0 1 ln 1 y d y ) 2 = ? \displaystyle \left(\int_{1}^{0} \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\ln \frac{1}{y}}} \ dy\right)^2 = \, ?

Give your answer correct to 4 decimal places.


The answer is 3.1415.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

2 solutions

Nihar Mahajan
Feb 9, 2016

Aim: To prove that Γ ( n ) = 0 1 ( ln 1 y ) n 1 d y \displaystyle\Gamma(n)=\int_{0}^{1} \left(\ln \frac{1}{y}\right)^{n-1} \ dy .

Proof:

We know by definition , Γ ( n ) = 0 x n 1 e x d x \Gamma(n)=\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n-1}e^{-x} \ dx .

Now substitute x = ln 1 y y = e x d y = e x d x x=\ln \frac{1}{y} \Rightarrow y=e^{-x} \Rightarrow dy=-e^{-x} \ dx . Also note that as x = 0 x=0 , y = 1 y=1 and as x x\rightarrow \infty , y = 0 y=0 and we change the limits accordingly. Hence we have

Γ ( n ) = 1 0 ( ln 1 y ) n 1 = 0 1 ( ln 1 y ) n 1 d y \Gamma(n)=-\int_{1}^{0} \left(\ln \frac{1}{y}\right)^{n-1}=\int_{0}^{1} \left(\ln \frac{1}{y}\right)^{n-1} \ dy

which was to be proved :)

Now we use Γ ( n ) = 0 1 ( ln 1 y ) n 1 d y \displaystyle\Gamma(n)=\int_{0}^{1} \left(\ln \frac{1}{y}\right)^{n-1} \ dy .In this problem , n = 1 2 n=\frac{1}{2} , hence ,

0 1 1 ln 1 y d y = 1 0 1 ln 1 y d y = Γ ( 1 2 ) = π \int_{0}^{1} \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\ln \frac{1}{y}}} \ dy =-\int_{1}^{0} \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{\ln \frac{1}{y}}} \ dy= -\Gamma\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)=-\sqrt{\pi}

Since we are asked to find the square , we have the answer as π 3.1415 \pi\approx \boxed{3.1415} .

Moderator note:

Good clear explanation.

Nice solution, i wasnt aware of this form but worked it out by subbing ln ( y ) = x -\ln(y)=x PS, i forgot the value of pi, so my first attempt was wrong(3.4216).... got it in the second:p

Aareyan Manzoor - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Lol , okay. Thanks

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago

Dude you are prepared, now let's start the junior integration contest!

@Nihar Mahajan

Harsh Shrivastava - 5 years, 4 months ago

Nice solution!!

A Former Brilliant Member - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Thank you! :)

Nihar Mahajan - 5 years, 4 months ago

ohh my boy has grown up and i am the same as you now i can do it with @Aditya Kumar and @Nihar Mahajan

Mardokay Mosazghi - 5 years, 4 months ago
Paul Cox
Feb 17, 2016

lets just take the integral and rewrite it

1 0 ( l n ( y ) ) 1 / 2 \int_{1}^{0} (-ln(y))^{-1/2}

Using u sub where u = l n ( y ) u=-ln(y) ; d u = d y / y du=-dy/y ; y = e u y=e^{-u} ; d y = y d u dy=-ydu ; and d y = e u d u dy=-e^{-u}du

We can rewrite the integral as

0 1 u e u d u -\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{u}} e^{-u}du

Make a new substitution u = v 2 u=v^{2} ; d u = 2 v d v du=2vdv

and we get

0 1 v e v 2 2 v d v -\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{v} e^{-v^{2}}2vdv

simplify

2 0 e v 2 d v -2\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-v^{2}}dv

This is a known integral, the indefinite integral of e x 2 e^{-x^2} is defined as the e r f ( x ) erf(x) and the integral from 0 to infinity is known to be π / 2 \sqrt{\pi}/2

so plug that in

2 × π / 2 -2 \times \sqrt{\pi}/2

π -\sqrt{\pi}

square this, and you get π \pi for the answer.

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...