Interesting Limit (15)

Calculus Level 5

lim n n sin ( 2 π e n ! ) = ? \large\lim_{n\to\infty}n\sin(2\pi e n!)=\, ?


Bonus: Use this result to prove that e e is irrational.


The answer is 6.2831853.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

3 solutions

Brian Moehring
Jul 14, 2018

e n ! = k = 0 n ! k ! = ( k = 0 n n ! k ! ) + ( k = n + 1 n ! k ! ) : = A n + B n e\cdot n! = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \frac{n!}{k!} = \left(\sum_{k=0}^n \frac{n!}{k!}\right) + \left(\sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{n!}{k!}\right) := A_n + B_n

Here, we note that A n A_n is an integer, so sin ( 2 π e n ! ) = sin ( 2 π A n + 2 π B n ) = sin ( 2 π B n ) , \sin(2\pi en!) = \sin(2\pi A_n+ 2\pi B_n) = \sin(2\pi B_n), and ( n + 1 ) B n 1 = k = n + 2 ( n + 1 ) ! k ! k = n + 2 1 n k ( n + 1 ) = 1 n 1 1 n = 1 n 1 n 0 \left|(n+1) B_n - 1 \right| = \sum_{k=n+2}^\infty \frac{(n+1)!}{k!} \leq \sum_{k=n+2}^\infty \frac{1}{n^{k - (n+1)}} = \frac{\frac{1}{n}}{1-\frac{1}{n}} = \frac{1}{n-1}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty} 0 so that lim n n B n = lim n n n + 1 ( n + 1 ) B n = 1 1 = 1. \lim_{n\to\infty} n B_n = \lim_{n\to\infty} \frac{n}{n+1} \cdot (n+1) B_n = 1 \cdot 1 = 1.

Therefore lim n n sin ( 2 π e n ! ) = 2 π lim n ( n B n ) ( sin ( 2 π B n ) 2 π B n ) = 2 π ( 1 ) ( 1 ) = 2 π 6.28 \lim_{n\to\infty} n \sin(2\pi en!) = 2\pi \lim_{n\to\infty} \left(n B_n\right) \left(\frac{\sin(2\pi B_n)}{2\pi B_n}\right) = 2\pi(1)(1) = 2\pi \approx 6.28


For the Bonus question:

Assume e e is rational, so e = M N e = \frac{M}{N} for some integers M , N M,N with N > 0 N > 0 . However, then for n N n \geq N , we'd have e n ! = M n ! N e n! = M \cdot \frac{n!}{N} is an integer and therefore sin ( 2 π e n ! ) = 0 . \sin(2\pi en!) = 0\text{.} It would then follow that the limit in the question is also 0 . 0\text{.} Since it isn't, e e must be irrational.

We write

n ! = 0 x n e x d x \displaystyle n!=\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n}e^{-x}dx

So,

e n ! = 0 x n e ( x 1 ) d x = 0 ( 1 + u ) n e u d u + 1 0 ( 1 + u ) n e u d u \displaystyle en!=\int_{0}^{\infty} x^{n}e^{-(x-1)}dx=\int_{0}^{\infty} (1+u)^{n}e^{-u}du+\int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n}e^{-u}du

The first term is clearly an integer and the second term tends to 0 as n tends to infinity.

So, the limit can be written in the form

lim n > n sin ( 2 π e n ! ) = lim n > 2 π n 1 0 ( 1 + u ) n e u d u \displaystyle \lim_{n->\infty} n\sin{(2\pi e n!)}=\lim_{n->\infty} 2\pi n \int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n}e^{-u}du

And by integrating by parts,

1 0 ( 1 + u ) n e u d u = 1 n + 1 + 1 n + 1 1 0 ( 1 + u ) n + 1 e u d u \displaystyle \int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n}e^{-u}du=\dfrac{1}{n+1}+\dfrac{1}{n+1} \int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n+1}e^{-u}du

Hence,

lim n > n 1 0 ( 1 + u ) n e u d u = lim n > n n + 1 + n n + 1 1 0 ( 1 + u ) n + 1 e u d u = 1 \displaystyle \lim_{n->\infty} n \int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n}e^{-u}du=\lim_{n->\infty} \dfrac{n}{n+1}+\dfrac{n}{n+1} \int_{-1}^{0} (1+u)^{n+1}e^{-u}du=1

So, the answer is 2 π \displaystyle \boxed{2\pi}

John Crocker
Jul 15, 2018

Strangely enough I assumed this was a typo and the argument in the sin was devided by n! When you apply the sterling approximation you arrive at the same result:)

It sounds like you mean lim n n sin ( 2 π e n ! ) \lim_{n\to\infty} n \sin\left(\frac{2\pi e}{n!}\right) but this equals zero. How did you interpret it?

Brian Moehring - 2 years, 11 months ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...