Interesting Limit (20)

Calculus Level 2

lim n 0 n ( 1 x n ) n e x 2 d x \large \lim_{n\to\infty}\int_0^n\left(1-\frac x n\right)^n e^{\frac x 2}dx

Evaluate the limit above.


Resource: Real and complex analysis Ⅰ final exam.


The answer is 2.

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1 solution

Mark Hennings
May 23, 2019

It is easy to show that e x 1 + x e^x \ge 1+x for all real x x , and hence that 0 1 x e x 0 \le 1-x \le e^{-x} for all 0 x 1 0 \le x \le 1 , Thus, if we define f n ( x ) = { ( 1 x n ) n e 1 2 x 0 x n 0 x > n f_n(x) \; = \; \left\{ \begin{array}{lll} \big(1 - \tfrac{x}{n}\big)^n e^{\frac12x} & \hspace{1cm} & 0 \le x \le n \\ 0 & & x > n \end{array} \right. then f n L 1 ( 0 , ) f_n \in L^1(0,\infty) for all positive integers n n , and 0 f n ( x ) g ( x ) lim n f n ( x ) = g ( x ) 0 \le f_n(x) \le g(x) \hspace{2cm} \lim_{n \to \infty}f_n(x) \; =\; g(x) for all x 0 x \ge 0 , where g ( x ) = e 1 2 x g(x) = e^{-\frac12x} . Hence, by the Dominated Convergence Theorem, lim n 0 f n ( x ) d x = 0 g ( x ) d x = 2 \lim_{n \to \infty} \int_0^\infty f_n(x)\,dx \; = \; \int_0^\infty g(x)\,dx \; = \; \boxed{2}

Limit will be 1 if we don't have e^(x/2) in the integrand but how to show it . Can you help me ? Sir.

Rock Lee Lee - 1 year, 11 months ago

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Exactly the same argument using the DCT as above, but with g ( x ) = e x g(x) = e^{-x} this time.

Mark Hennings - 1 year, 11 months ago

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Thank you Sir. I got idea to solve.

Rock Lee Lee - 1 year, 11 months ago

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