Intergral minimization

Calculus Level 3

Let f ( x ) f(x) be a continuous function, whose first and second derivatives are continuous on [ 0 , 2 π ] [0,2\pi] and f ( x ) 0 f''(x) \geq 0 for all x x in [ 0 , 2 π ] [0,2\pi] . Then the minimum value of the below expression is 0 2 π f ( x ) cos x d x \int_{0}^{2\pi} f(x)\cos x dx


The answer is 0.

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1 solution

Joseph Newton
Apr 9, 2021

Using integration by parts twice, 0 2 π f ( x ) cos x d x = [ f ( x ) sin x ] 0 2 π 0 2 π f ( x ) sin x d x = 0 + [ f ( x ) cos x ] 0 2 π 0 2 π f ( x ) cos x d x = f ( 2 π ) f ( 0 ) 0 2 π f ( x ) cos x d x \begin{aligned} \int_0^{2\pi}f(x)\cos xdx&=\left[f(x)\sin x\right]_0^{2\pi}-\int_0^{2\pi}f'(x)\sin xdx\\ &=0+\left[f'(x)\cos x\right]_0^{2\pi}-\int_0^{2\pi}f''(x)\cos xdx\\ &=f'(2\pi)-f'(0)-\int_0^{2\pi}f''(x)\cos xdx \end{aligned} Now, notice that we can write f ( 2 π ) f ( 0 ) f'(2\pi)-f'(0) as an integral of f ( x ) f''(x) , so the expression becomes 0 2 π f ( x ) d x 0 2 π f ( x ) cos x d x = 0 2 π f ( x ) ( 1 cos x ) d x \int_0^{2\pi}f''(x)dx-\int_0^{2\pi}f''(x)\cos xdx=\int_0^{2\pi}f''(x)(1-\cos x)dx ( 1 cos x ) 0 (1-\cos x)\geq0 and f ( x ) 0 f''(x)\geq0 for all x [ 0 , 2 π ] x\in[0,2\pi] , so the minimum value of the integral is 0 0 , which is attained when f ( x ) = 0 f''(x)=0 .

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