Henri makes the following statement:
∃ no θ ∈ R such that ∣ ∣ ∣ b ⋅ sin ( 2 π − θ ) ∣ ∣ ∣ = b 2 − a 2 when sin θ = b a .
Is Henri correct?
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Note that cos 2 θ = ∣ cos θ ∣ , not necessarily simply cos θ .
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Assume that sin ( 2 π − θ ) = b b 2 − a 2 .
sin ( 2 π − θ ) = cos θ .
sin 2 θ + cos 2 θ = 1 ⟹ cos 2 θ = 1 − sin 2 θ = 1 − b 2 a 2 .
So ∣ cos θ ∣ = b 2 b 2 − b 2 a 2 = b 2 b 2 − a 2
∴ ∣ cos θ ∣ = b b 2 − a 2 ⟹ ∣ b ⋅ cos θ ∣ = b 2 − a 2 .
So Henri was correct.