Is it 1 1^{\infty} form?

Calculus Level 5

Find

lim n lim x π 2 n ( cot x 2 ( k = 1 n 1 k n sin ( k π n ) ) 1 ) 1 tan ( 2 n x ) \lim_{n\to\infty}\lim_{x\to\frac{\pi}{2n}} \left(\frac{\cot x}{2}\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{k}{n}\sin\left(\frac{k\pi}{n}\right)\right)^{-1}\right)^{\frac{1}{\tan(2nx)}}

Source: Romanian Mathematical Magazine Spring edition 2022, problem UP. 355 .


The answer is 0.727377.

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1 solution

Naren Bhandari
Oct 28, 2020

My solution,

Since A ( n ) = k = 1 n 1 k n sin ( π k n ) = k = 1 n 1 ( n k n ) sin ( π k n ) A ( n ) = 1 2 k = 1 n 1 sin ( π k n ) \mathcal{A}(n)=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\frac{k}{n}\sin\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right)=\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\left(\frac{n-k}{n}\right)\sin\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right) \Rightarrow \mathcal{A}(n)=\frac{1}{2}\sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\sin\left(\frac{\pi k}{n}\right) Now k = 1 n 1 sin ( π k n ) = ( k = 1 n 1 e i k π n ) = ( 1 e i π 1 e i π / n ) = ( i e i π 2 n ) sin ( π 2 n ) \sum_{k=1}^{n-1}\sin\left(\frac{ \pi k}{n}\right)=\Im\left(\sum_{k=1}^{n-1} e^{\frac{i k\pi}{n}}\right)=\Im\left(\frac{1-e^{i\pi}}{1-e^{i \pi/n}}\right)=\frac{\Im\left(ie^{-i\frac{\pi}{2n}}\right)}{\sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)} simplification gives A ( n ) = 1 2 cot ( π 2 n ) \mathcal{A}(n)=\frac{1}{2}\cot\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right) so we are now supposed to find L = lim n ( lim x π 2 n cot ( x ) cot ( π 2 n ) ) 1 tan ( 2 n x ) = lim n ( B ( n ) ) 1 tan ( 2 n x ) L=\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2n}}\frac{\cot (x)}{\cot\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}\right)^{\frac{1}{\tan(2nx)}}=\lim_{n\to \infty}\left(\mathcal{B}(n)\right)^{\frac{1}{\tan(2nx)}} We note that as x π 2 n , B ( n ) 1 x\to \frac{\pi}{2n}\ , \mathcal{B}(n)\to 1 then limit attains the form of 1 1^{\infty} so log B ( n ) = lim x π 2 n 1 tan ( 2 n x ) log ( cot ( x ) cot ( π 2 n ) ) \log\mathcal{B}(n)= \lim_{x\to \frac{\pi}{2n}}\frac{1}{\tan(2nx)}\log\left(\frac{\cot(x)}{\cot\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}\right) as B ( n ) \mathcal{B}(n) attains 0 / 0 0/0 form so due to L-hopitals rule we have log B ( n ) = lim x π 2 n csc ( x ) sec ( x ) 2 n sec 2 ( 2 n x ) = csc ( π 2 n ) sec ( π 2 n ) 2 n \log\mathcal{B}(n)=-\lim_{x\to\frac{\pi}{2n}}\frac{\csc(x)\sec(x)}{2n\sec^2(2nx)}= -\frac{\csc\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)\sec\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}{2n} Therefore L = lim n exp ( csc ( π 2 n ) 2 n ) = e π 1 = 1 e π L= \lim_{n\to \infty}\exp\left(-\frac{\csc\left(\frac{\pi}{2n}\right)}{2n}\right)=e^{-\pi^{-1}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt[\pi]{e}} is the answer.

Here the is solution due to proposer.

We actually do not need the identity which you proved. Since it is an iterated limit...we can treat any function of n as a constant and directly take log on both sides and apply the limit wrt x. Using that you would directly get log L = lim(n tends to infinity) -(csc(pi/2n)sec(pi/2n))/2n. Which would directly give e^(-1/pi) as the answer. But yes...for a rigorous proof...your solution is excellent as it clearly justifies the 1^infinity form. Well done.

Arghyadeep Chatterjee - 6 months, 4 weeks ago

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Nice! How about this one ? and some more interesting I proposed here on brilliant. And here is the another by same proposer.

Naren Bhandari - 6 months, 3 weeks ago

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