It is given that there is a value x such that
x y = y x ( x > 1 )
has only 1 solution for y . Let that solution for y be A .
Find ⌊ 1 0 0 0 0 A ⌋ .
Details and Assumptions
If you think that there is more than 1 such value for y , input -1.
If you think that there is no such value for x , input 2.
x and y are real.
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General parametric solution
x = ( 1 + k 1 ) k
y = ( 1 + k 1 ) k + 1 .
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Wow. How did you derive that?
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First substitute y = m x to obtain
x = m m − 1 1
y = m m − 1 m
These are also parametric solutions, further substitute k = m − 1 1 to obtain the above result :)
This is a nice problem! I believe there should be a proof by the Lambert W-function, but I went with my intuition and followed a proof a bit like yours to get x = y = e .
what about 4 2 = 2 4 ? Surely that makes for another solution?
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When x = 2 , y can be 2 or 4 or − 0 . 7 6 6 6 6 4 6 9 5 9 . . . So, x = 2 isnt a solution because there is more than 1 solution for y .
However, y = x = e is the answer because when x = e , there is no other solutions for y .
@Julian Poon PLEASE HELP! This is how I had tried at first. x y = y x x x y = y y y x = x T a k i n g d x d y a n d d y d x
d x d y = d x d x x y = x y x y x − 1 = y x y x − y d y d x = d y d y y x = y x y x y − 1 = x y x y − x Using d x d y = d y d x 1 and plugging in the values of d x d y and d y d x , we get
y x y x − y = x y x y − x 1 y x y x − y × x y x y − x = 1
x x y y y x = 1 Replacing with x and y, y x = 1
Now, for x > 1 , y can assume infinite fractional values as solutions.
Could somebody please explain why what I've done is wrong? Thanks very much in advance.
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Your differentiation is incorrect, because the other variable is not a constant.
y = x = 2 is a solution TOO !!!
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Yes but when x = 2 , there is another solution which is y = 4 and y = − 0 . 7 6 6 6 6 4 6 9 5 9 . . .
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For this question, I can't find a closed form for y . However, it is still solvable.
Due to symmetry, there would always be the solution x = y . However, that is not the only solution for mast numbers.
The expression can be written as x ln ( x ) = y l n ( y )
Now let y ln ( y ) = a , so x ln ( x ) = a
You can see from this that when x < 1 , there is only 1 solution which is x = y , since it means that a is a negative and that a would not be negative even as y approaches infinity.
Now, for 1 solution to occur other than when x < 1 , we would have to find the maximum for a . So,
d x d x ln ( x ) = x 2 1 − ln ( x ) = 0 , x = e
Now due to symmetry, there would always be the soultion x = y , so y = e
Therefore, ⌊ 1 0 0 0 0 A ⌋ = ⌊ 1 0 0 0 0 e ⌋ = 2 7 1 8 2
Here is a graphic of what I am talking about: here