It's a toss-up ....

A game is played with a fair coin where you are asked to toss the coin 10 10 times. If you make it through the 10 10 tosses without tossing a sequence of either 3 3 (or more) consecutive heads or 3 3 (or more) consecutive tails in a row then you win $ 5 \$5 , otherwise you pay $ 1 \$1 .

Your expected monetary return, (in dollars), after playing this game 100 100 times is a b \dfrac{a}{b} , where a a and b b are positive coprime integers. Find a + b a + b .


The answer is 339.

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2 solutions

The number of sequences of 10 10 tosses in which there is no run of 3 3 or more consecutive heads or tails can be counted as follows.

We need to look at how many ways we can alternate groups of 1 1 or 2 2 each of heads or tails. For example, the sequence H T T H H T H T T H HTTHHTHTTH can be represented by the ordering ( 1 , 2 , 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 , 1 ) (1,2,2,1,1,2,1) . Now this ordering also corresponds to the sequence T H H T T H T H H T THHTTHTHHT , so we will have to multiply the number of distinct orderings we find by 2 2 to get our final tally.

Now the distinct orderings are all the permutations of any of

(i) 10 1's, resulting in 1 possible permutation,

(ii) 8 1's and 1 2, resulting in 9 ! 8 ! = 9 \frac{9!}{8!} = 9 possible permutations,

(iii) 6 1's and 2 2's, resulting in 8 ! 6 ! 2 ! = 28 \frac{8!}{6!*2!} = 28 possible permutations,

(iv) 4 1's and 3 2's, resulting in 7 ! 4 ! 3 ! = 35 \frac{7!}{4!*3!} = 35 possible permutations,

(v) 2 1's and 4 2's, resulting in 6 ! 4 ! 2 ! = 15 \frac{6!}{4!*2!} = 15 possible permutations,

(vi) 5 2's, resulting in 1 possible permutation.

These add to 89 89 permutations, which we then need to multiply by 2 2 to get a final tally of 178 178 possible sequences of 10 10 coin tosses in which there is no run of 3 3 or more consecutive heads or tails.

Since there are 2 10 = 1024 2^{10} = 1024 possible sequences without restrictions, the probability of getting a winning sequence is 178 1024 = 89 512 \frac{178}{1024} = \frac{89}{512} , and the probability of getting a losing sequence is 1 89 512 = 423 512 1 - \frac{89}{512} = \frac{423}{512} .

Thus the expected monetary return for one game played is

5 89 512 1 423 512 = 22 512 = 11 256 5*\dfrac{89}{512} - 1*\dfrac{423}{512} = \dfrac{22}{512} = \dfrac{11}{256} .

The expected return from 100 100 games played is then

100 11 256 = 275 64 100 * \dfrac{11}{256} = \dfrac{275}{64} .

This means that a = 275 , b = 64 a = 275, b = 64 and a + b = 339 a + b = \boxed{339} .

It's not too hard to show that the total number of sequences with no run of three in a row is 2 f n + 1 2 f_{n+1} , where f n f_n is the n n th Fibonacci number.

Patrick Corn - 6 years, 8 months ago

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@Patrick Corn Din't get u.

Ishan Kothari - 6 years, 7 months ago

the permutations that you have taken , arent they for losing combinations?

Sanmeet Kaur - 4 years, 3 months ago

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You win if you don't get 3 or more heads or 3 or more tails in a row, and the permutations I've taken do satisfy these conditions.

Brian Charlesworth - 4 years, 3 months ago
Nicola Mignoni
Mar 15, 2019

The single game can be modelled as a 3-state Markov Chain: let it be s = ( s 1 , . . . , s 10 ) \textbf{s}=(s_1,...,s_{10}) , s i { H , T } s_i \in \{H,T\} , i [ 1 , 10 ] i \in [1,10] the outcome of a single game. Let's define the states:

S = { D , if x i + 1 x i , 2 i 9 E 2 , if x i + 1 = x i , 2 i 9 E 3 , if x i = x i + 1 = x i + 2 , 2 i 8 S=\begin{cases} D, & \text{if} \ x_{i+1} \neq x_i, \ 2 \leq i \leq 9 \\ E_2, & \text{if} \ x_{i+1} = x_i, \ 2 \leq i \leq 9 \\ E_3, & \text{if} \ x_i=x_{i+1}=x_{i+2}, \ 2 \leq i \leq 8 \end{cases}

the set of the possible three reachable states. In other terms, we are in D D when the previous outcome is different from the present one, E 2 E_2 or E 3 E_3 when the last, respectively, two or three outcomes are the same. Notice that the index i i starts from 2 2 in S S . That's because the first coin toss outcome is not relevant, i.e. you can reach the state D D (if the second outcome is different from the first) or E 2 E_2 (if the second outcome is equal to the first) despite s 1 s_1 being head or tails.

Hence, our transition matrix is

P = ( 1 2 1 2 0 1 2 0 1 2 0 0 1 ) P=\begin{pmatrix} \frac{1}{2} & \frac{1}{2} & 0 \\ \frac{1}{2} & 0 & \frac{1}{2} \\ 0 & 0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}

and our initial state vector u \textbf{u} is

u = ( 1 2 , 1 2 , 0 ) \displaystyle \textbf{u}=\bigg(\frac{1}{2}, \frac{1}{2}, 0\bigg)

If we define P ( g ) \mathbb{P}(g) the probability of winning a single game, we have that

P ( g ) = 1 { u P 8 } 3 = 89 512 \displaystyle \mathbb{P}(g)=1-\{\textbf{u} \cdot P^8\}_3=\frac{89}{512} \quad \clubsuit

The expected winning E ( g ) \mathbb{E}(g) after a game is

E ( g ) = 5 P ( g ) ( 1 P ( g ) ) = 11 256 \displaystyle \mathbb{E}(g)=5 \cdot \mathbb{P}(g) - (1-\mathbb{P}(g))= \frac{11}{256}

By linearity of expected value, the expected winning after 100 games is simply

100 E ( g ) = 275 64 = p q p + q = 339 \displaystyle 100\mathbb{E}(g)=\frac{275}{64}=\frac{p}{q} \\ p+q=\boxed{339}


\clubsuit : the notation { } k \{\cdot\}_k means that we are considering the k k -th element of the vector.

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