A game is played with a fair coin where you are asked to toss the coin 1 0 times. If you make it through the 1 0 tosses without tossing a sequence of either 3 (or more) consecutive heads or 3 (or more) consecutive tails in a row then you win $ 5 , otherwise you pay $ 1 .
Your expected monetary return, (in dollars), after playing this game 1 0 0 times is b a , where a and b are positive coprime integers. Find a + b .
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It's not too hard to show that the total number of sequences with no run of three in a row is 2 f n + 1 , where f n is the n th Fibonacci number.
the permutations that you have taken , arent they for losing combinations?
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You win if you don't get 3 or more heads or 3 or more tails in a row, and the permutations I've taken do satisfy these conditions.
The single game can be modelled as a 3-state Markov Chain: let it be s = ( s 1 , . . . , s 1 0 ) , s i ∈ { H , T } , i ∈ [ 1 , 1 0 ] the outcome of a single game. Let's define the states:
S = ⎩ ⎪ ⎨ ⎪ ⎧ D , E 2 , E 3 , if x i + 1 = x i , 2 ≤ i ≤ 9 if x i + 1 = x i , 2 ≤ i ≤ 9 if x i = x i + 1 = x i + 2 , 2 ≤ i ≤ 8
the set of the possible three reachable states. In other terms, we are in D when the previous outcome is different from the present one, E 2 or E 3 when the last, respectively, two or three outcomes are the same. Notice that the index i starts from 2 in S . That's because the first coin toss outcome is not relevant, i.e. you can reach the state D (if the second outcome is different from the first) or E 2 (if the second outcome is equal to the first) despite s 1 being head or tails.
Hence, our transition matrix is
P = ⎝ ⎛ 2 1 2 1 0 2 1 0 0 0 2 1 1 ⎠ ⎞
and our initial state vector u is
u = ( 2 1 , 2 1 , 0 )
If we define P ( g ) the probability of winning a single game, we have that
P ( g ) = 1 − { u ⋅ P 8 } 3 = 5 1 2 8 9 ♣
The expected winning E ( g ) after a game is
E ( g ) = 5 ⋅ P ( g ) − ( 1 − P ( g ) ) = 2 5 6 1 1
By linearity of expected value, the expected winning after 100 games is simply
1 0 0 E ( g ) = 6 4 2 7 5 = q p p + q = 3 3 9
♣ : the notation { ⋅ } k means that we are considering the k -th element of the vector.
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The number of sequences of 1 0 tosses in which there is no run of 3 or more consecutive heads or tails can be counted as follows.
We need to look at how many ways we can alternate groups of 1 or 2 each of heads or tails. For example, the sequence H T T H H T H T T H can be represented by the ordering ( 1 , 2 , 2 , 1 , 1 , 2 , 1 ) . Now this ordering also corresponds to the sequence T H H T T H T H H T , so we will have to multiply the number of distinct orderings we find by 2 to get our final tally.
Now the distinct orderings are all the permutations of any of
(i) 10 1's, resulting in 1 possible permutation,
(ii) 8 1's and 1 2, resulting in 8 ! 9 ! = 9 possible permutations,
(iii) 6 1's and 2 2's, resulting in 6 ! ∗ 2 ! 8 ! = 2 8 possible permutations,
(iv) 4 1's and 3 2's, resulting in 4 ! ∗ 3 ! 7 ! = 3 5 possible permutations,
(v) 2 1's and 4 2's, resulting in 4 ! ∗ 2 ! 6 ! = 1 5 possible permutations,
(vi) 5 2's, resulting in 1 possible permutation.
These add to 8 9 permutations, which we then need to multiply by 2 to get a final tally of 1 7 8 possible sequences of 1 0 coin tosses in which there is no run of 3 or more consecutive heads or tails.
Since there are 2 1 0 = 1 0 2 4 possible sequences without restrictions, the probability of getting a winning sequence is 1 0 2 4 1 7 8 = 5 1 2 8 9 , and the probability of getting a losing sequence is 1 − 5 1 2 8 9 = 5 1 2 4 2 3 .
Thus the expected monetary return for one game played is
5 ∗ 5 1 2 8 9 − 1 ∗ 5 1 2 4 2 3 = 5 1 2 2 2 = 2 5 6 1 1 .
The expected return from 1 0 0 games played is then
1 0 0 ∗ 2 5 6 1 1 = 6 4 2 7 5 .
This means that a = 2 7 5 , b = 6 4 and a + b = 3 3 9 .