Its here again

Calculus Level 4

n = 0 ( 2 n n ) x n \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \binom{2n}{n}x^{n}

If the above sum is a real number, find sup x inf x \displaystyle \sup x - \inf x , where sup \sup is the supremum, inf \inf is the infimum, and x x is real.


The answer is 0.5.

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

1 solution

Jake Lai
May 13, 2015

The ratio test shows that the sum converges for x < 0.25 |x| < 0.25 :

lim n ( 2 ( n + 1 ) n + 1 ) x n + 1 ( 2 n n ) x n = lim n ( 2 n + 2 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) x ( n + 1 ) 2 = 4 x \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{\binom{2(n+1)}{n+1}x^{n+1}}{\binom{2n}{n}x^{n}} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{(2n+2)(2n+1)x}{(n+1)^{2}} = 4x

As such, the supremum of x x (but not the maximum) is 0.25 0.25 ; likewise, the infimum (but not minimum) is 0.25 -0.25 . Hence,

sup x inf x = 0.25 ( 0.25 ) = 0.5 \sup x - \inf x = 0.25-(-0.25) = \boxed{0.5}

Moderator note:

Nice work! Bonus question: What would the answer be if I replace ( 2 n n ) \dbinom{2n}{n} by ( m n n n n n ) \dbinom{mn}{n \ n \ n \ldots n } for some positive integer m m (note that there's m m n n 's at the bottom of the multinomial coefficient)?

I'm going to assume that's the multinomial coefficient defined by

( n k 1 , k 2 , , k m ) = n ! k 1 ! k 2 ! k m ! \binom{n}{k_{1}, k_{2}, \ldots , k_{m}} = \frac{n!}{k_{1}!k_{2}! \ldots k_{m}!}

In your replacement, we have

( m n n , n , , n ) = ( m n ) ! n ! n ! n ! = ( m n ) ! n ! m \binom{mn}{n, n, \ldots , n} = \frac{(mn)!}{n!n! \ldots n!} = \frac{(mn)!}{n!^{m}}

By a similar argument as above, using the ratio test shows that

lim n ( m ( n + 1 ) ) ! ( n + 1 ) ! m / ( m n ) ! n ! m = lim n ( m n + 1 ) ( m n + 2 ) ( m n + m ) ( n + 1 ) m = m m \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{(m(n+1))!}{(n+1)!^{m}} / \frac{(mn)!}{n!^{m}} = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \frac{(mn+1)(mn+2) \ldots (mn+m)}{(n+1)^{m}} = m^{m}

so we require x < 1 m m |x| < \frac{1}{m^{m}} .

Jake Lai - 6 years, 1 month ago

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...