n = 0 ∑ ∞ ( n 2 n ) x n
If the above sum is a real number, find sup x − in f x , where sup is the supremum, in f is the infimum, and x is real.
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Nice work! Bonus question: What would the answer be if I replace ( n 2 n ) by ( n n n … n m n ) for some positive integer m (note that there's m n 's at the bottom of the multinomial coefficient)?
I'm going to assume that's the multinomial coefficient defined by
( k 1 , k 2 , … , k m n ) = k 1 ! k 2 ! … k m ! n !
In your replacement, we have
( n , n , … , n m n ) = n ! n ! … n ! ( m n ) ! = n ! m ( m n ) !
By a similar argument as above, using the ratio test shows that
n → ∞ lim ( n + 1 ) ! m ( m ( n + 1 ) ) ! / n ! m ( m n ) ! = n → ∞ lim ( n + 1 ) m ( m n + 1 ) ( m n + 2 ) … ( m n + m ) = m m
so we require ∣ x ∣ < m m 1 .
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The ratio test shows that the sum converges for ∣ x ∣ < 0 . 2 5 :
n → ∞ lim ( n 2 n ) x n ( n + 1 2 ( n + 1 ) ) x n + 1 = n → ∞ lim ( n + 1 ) 2 ( 2 n + 2 ) ( 2 n + 1 ) x = 4 x
As such, the supremum of x (but not the maximum) is 0 . 2 5 ; likewise, the infimum (but not minimum) is − 0 . 2 5 . Hence,
sup x − in f x = 0 . 2 5 − ( − 0 . 2 5 ) = 0 . 5