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What is the remainder when 32 32 32 \large {32}^{{32}^{32}} is divided by 7 7 ?

2 3 4 1

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9 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
Oct 31, 2014

By Fermat's little theorem states that if p p is prime and m m and n n are positive integers such that m n ( m o d p 1 ) m\equiv n\pmod{p-1} then for every integer a a we have a m a n ( m o d p ) a^m\equiv a^n\pmod{p} .

Since 7 7 is prime , to solve the problem, 3 2 3 2 32 x ( m o d 7 ) 32^{32^{32}} \equiv x \pmod{7} we first solve for n n in 3 2 32 n ( m o d 6 ) 32^{32} \equiv n \pmod {6} .

3 2 32 ( 30 + 2 ) 32 2 32 25 6 4 4 4 256 4 ( m o d 6 ) 32^{32} \equiv (30+2)^{32} \equiv 2^{32} \equiv 256^4 \equiv 4^4 \equiv 256 \equiv 4 \pmod {6}

3 2 3 2 32 3 2 4 ( m o d 7 ) 3 2 4 ( 28 + 4 ) 4 4 4 256 4 ( m o d 7 ) 32^{32^{32}} \equiv 32^4 \pmod{7} \quad \Rightarrow 32^4 \equiv (28+4)^4 \equiv 4^4 \equiv 256 \equiv \boxed {4} \pmod {7}

Sanjeet Raria
Oct 31, 2014

Notation: R ( a b ) R(\frac{a}{b}) =Remainder when a a is divided by b b .

R ( 3 2 3 2 32 7 ) R(\frac{32^{32^{32}}}{7}) = R ( 4 3 2 32 7 ) =R(\frac{4^{32^{32}}}{7}) Now R ( 3 2 32 3 ) = R ( 2 32 3 ) R(\frac{32^{32}}{3})=R(\frac{2^{32}}{3}) = R ( 2 2 16 3 ) = 1 =R(\frac{{2^{2}}^{16}}{3})=1 3 2 32 = 3 n + 1 \Rightarrow {32^{32}}=3n+1 R ( 4 3 2 32 7 ) = R ( 4 3 n 4 7 ) = 4 \Rightarrow R(\frac{4^{32^{32}}}{7})=R(\frac{4^{3n}•4}{7})=4 R ( 3 2 3 2 32 7 ) = 4 \Rightarrow R(\frac{32^{32^{32}}}{7})=\boxed 4

how did u write 32^32 = 3n+1 ?

nishanth bageera - 6 years, 7 months ago

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Because he wrote that " Now R(32^32/3)=...=1 " That means, it equals to 3n+1 for some n, when n is a positive integer. Hint : Division Algorith

Guntitat Sawadwuthikul - 5 years, 1 month ago
Aman Gautam
Nov 7, 2014

2 x 1 = 2 (2^1) 2 x 2 = 4 (2^2) 4 x 2 = 8 (2^3) 8 x 2 = 16 (2^4) 16 x 2 = 32 32 x 2 = 64 64 x 2 = 128 128 x 2 = 256 256 x 2 = 512 (2^9)

the end digits are 2,4,8,6,2,4,8,6...

take note of the pattern of the remainders at the above sequence when divided by 7 when exponents are increased

2, 4, 1, 2, 4, 1, 2, 4, 1, 2, ...

at 2^32 the remainder, count 32 starting from 2,4,1,2,4,1,... you will arrive ar 4

same when 32 is raised to the power of 1 to 32, the above patterns goes the same

so the answer will be 4

does this method work for every no.?

Panshul Rastogi - 5 years, 1 month ago
Hayden Whaling
Nov 6, 2014

4 x 7 = 28, 32 - 28 = 4

Govind Balaji
Nov 7, 2014

I dont understand others solution. I used this logic. Is there any wrong?

(32 x 32 x 32 x 32 x ........32^32 times)/7 can be written as

(32/7) x (32 x 32 x 32 x........(32^32 - 1) times).

32/7 leaves remainder as 4. The second part has no remainder. That's what I understood.

No. You're absolutely right : ) :)

Krishna Ar - 6 years, 7 months ago

By that logic, the remainder will come out as 0 0 since if the second part has no remainder, then the expression becomes 4 × 0 0 ( m o d 7 ) \equiv 4\times 0 \equiv 0 \pmod 7 which isn't the case here. Your logic is flawed in my opinion.

I can't think of any method other than using Fermat's little theorem's generalization to solve this problem though.

Prasun Biswas - 6 years, 5 months ago
James Wyatt
Nov 6, 2014

32^32^32 -- 2^5^2^5^2^5

=> 2^800

(2^x)/7 has a cyclicity or repeatability of 3. That is (2^1)/7 - 2, (2^2)/7- 4, (2^3)/7 - 1 .....

Hence (2^800)/7 boils down to the same as (2^2)/7 which is 4.

Aadi Naik
Nov 7, 2014

Every 4th power of 32 leaves remainder 4 when divided by 7

Syed Baqir
Aug 7, 2015

32^32^32 looks quite daunting

Rof 32^32^32 when divided by 7 = Rof 4^32^32 by 7 as 28+4 = 32 4^32^32 =Rof 4 ^ (3k + 1) = Rof 4 ^3k * Rof 4 ^1 = 1 * 4 = 4 Hence Answer

Radhesh Sarma
Mar 13, 2016

I used Binomial

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