f ( x ) = 9 x 2 − 2 e x x − 9 x + 2 e x x ln ( x ) − ln ( x ) + 2
g ( x ) = sin 2 ( 2 π x 2 )
lim x → 1 g ( x ) f ( x )
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One can approach this directly.
First of all, g ( x ) is continuous at x=1, so, we can just substitute g ( 1 )
Next, consider f ( x ) when x approaches 1,
( x − 1 ) ln ( x ) tends to 0 as ( x − 1 ) 2 as x tend to 1 but the denominator tend to 0 as ( x − 1 ) , so, the whole terms tends to 0. This can be proven very easily by Taylor's expansion.
So, the answer is 2