Kaboobly Cannon

A machine fires its first shot and hits the target, but it misses its second shot.

All its subsequent shots have a probability of hitting the target equal to the proportion of targets hit beforehand. For example, if it hits 5 out of the first 8 shots, then the 9 th 9^\text{th} shot has a probability of 5 8 \dfrac58 to hit the target.

What is the probability that it hits exactly 50 out of its first 100 shots?

If the probability can be expressed as a b \dfrac ab , where a a and b b are coprime positive integers, submit a + b a+b .


The answer is 100.

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2 solutions

Mark Hennings
Dec 22, 2015

Relevant wiki: Conditional Probability - Problem Solving

If p n , k p_{n,k} is the probability that k k hits have been obtained after n + 1 n+1 shots, then p 1 , 0 = p 1 , 2 = 0 p_{1,0} = p_{1,2} = 0 and p 1 , 1 = 1 p_{1,1} = 1 . If n 1 n \ge 1 then standard conditional probability considerations give p n + 1 , k = p n , k P [ ( n + 2 ) n d shot a miss k hits so far ] + p n , k 1 P [ ( n + 2 ) n d shot a hit k 1 hits so far ] = n + 1 k n + 1 p n , k + k 1 n + 1 p n , k 1 \begin{array}{rcl} p_{n+1,k} & = & p_{n,k} P[(n+2)^{nd} \mbox{ shot a miss}\, \vert \,k \mbox{ hits so far}] + p_{n,k-1} P[(n+2)^{nd} \mbox{ shot a hit}\,\vert\, k-1 \mbox{ hits so far}] \\ & = & \dfrac{n+1 - k}{n+1}p_{n,k} +\dfrac{k-1}{n+1} p_{n,k-1} \end{array} for all 1 k n + 1 1 \le k \le n+1 , while p n + 1 , 0 = p n + 1 , n + 1 = 0 p_{n+1,0} = p_{n+1,n+1} = 0 .

A simple induction on n n shows that p n , k = { 1 n 1 k n , 0 k = 0 , n + 1 p_{n,k} \; = \; \left\{ \begin{array}{lcl} \dfrac{1}{n} & \qquad & 1 \le k \le n \;, \\ 0 & \qquad & k = 0,n+1 \end{array} \right. To answer the question, we need p 99 , 50 = 1 99 p_{99,50} = \dfrac{1}{99} .

This is an alternative representation of a very familiar problem --- that of Polya's Urn . In that model, we start with an urn containing 1 1 black ball and 1 1 white ball. Every second, a ball is chosen from the urn at random, and then returned, together with a second ball of the same colour. Polya's urn exhibits a number of interesting properties, and therefore so does the Kaboobly cannon.

The probability distribution of the number of hits achieved after n + 1 n+1 shots is (ignoring the impossible 0 , n + 1 0, n+1 options) is uniform. However, the proportion P n P_n of hits after n n shots defines a random variable, and this sequence P n P_n of random variables has a delicate property which makes it what is called a martingale (with respect to itself). This has the consequence that the sequence of random variables P n P_n converges, with probability 1 1 , to a limit. The value of that limit is a continuous random variable which is uniformly distributed over ( 0 , 1 ) (0,1) .

Thus every Kaboobly cannon will end up hitting the target a fixed proportion of times, but every cannon will have a different success rate, and all success rates are equally likely!

Thanks for the elaborate answer!

Agnishom Chattopadhyay - 5 years, 5 months ago
Nicola Mignoni
Nov 29, 2018

See this solution I wrote for a similar problem.

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