1 → 1 → 1 → 1 → 1 2 → 4 → 8 → 1 6 → 3 2 3 → 9 → 2 7 → 8 1 → 2 4 3 4 → 1 6 → 6 4 → 2 5 6 → 1 0 2 4
From equations above, it seems that a has the same last dight as a 5 . Is this formula true for all natural numbers?
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Thanks, an interesting approach. Upvoted!
Great solution
just a shorter proof for it.
a 4 − 1 ≅ 1 − 1 ≅ 0 ( m o d 5 ) by Fermet little thm.
If a is even, then a 5 − a is a multiple of 10.
If a is odd, then a 4 − 1 is even and a multiple of 5 , so a 5 − a is always a multiple of 10.
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Yes, this is the same as @Edward Christian 's solution. Here I was trying to show an alternative way without using modular arithmetic (at least, not explicitly!) or Fermat's little theorem.
A little correction here. For Fermat's thm to work, GCD(a,5)=1. Here, when this would not hold, a would directly be a multiple of 5, and like you stated, either of a or (a-1) will be even, so a^5-a = 10k. This is why unit digit's power cycle for any digit has a length of 4 (Since Euler(10) =4)
It can be reduced to the fact that all natural numbers either have a unit digit between 0 to 9 or they're simply one digit numbers. it's not difficult to see that all digits follow a cycle of unit digits when raised to some power, it turns out that from one to the fifth power a natural number with a unit digit m will give that same unit digit with power 5 as with power one. So we only need to see the following pattern
1 1 1 1 1
2 4 8 6 2
3 9 7 1 3
4 6 4 6 4
5 5 5 5 5
6 6 6 6 6
7 9 3 1 7
8 4 2 6 8
9 1 9 1 9
0 0 0 0 0
Does this not apply if a>9?
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It lists the cycle of unit digits of resultant products, corresponding to the unit digit of the number that is being raised to a power. And a unit digit can only be 0 through 9, so this is all we need to see
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Oh, thank you so much! I've just looked again and realised I interpreted the questions as the last digit(s) of a^5 = a
Related Wiki: Euler's Totient Function , Euler’s Theorem
It’s true that the statement is equivalent to proving a 5 ≡ a ( m o d 1 0 ) . First, when g cd ( a , 1 0 ) = 1 , using Euler’s theorem,
a ϕ ( n ) ≡ 1 ( m o d n )
When n = 1 0 , we can see 1 0 = 2 × 5 , therefore ϕ ( 1 0 ) = 1 0 × ( 1 − 2 1 ) ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 4 . Substitute ϕ ( 1 0 ) = 4 , we can get a 4 ≡ 1 ( m o d 1 0 ) . Multiplying both side by a , the equation can be written as a 5 ≡ a ( m o d 1 0 ) .
Anyway, g cd ( a , 1 0 ) may equal to 2 or 5 . When g cd ( a , 1 0 ) = 5 , obviously, a 5 always has the same last dight as a . Also, g cd ( a , 1 0 ) can be equal to 2 . a must be even, so we suppose a = 2 m . Inevitably, g cd ( m , 5 ) = 1 , therefore g cd ( 2 m , 5 ) = g cd ( m , 5 ) × g cd ( 2 , 5 ) = 1 . Now we can use Euler’s theorem,
( 2 m ) 4 ≡ 1 ( m o d 5 )
In it, ϕ ( 5 ) = 5 × ( 1 − 5 1 ) = 4 . From 2 m ≡ 2 m ( m o d 2 ) , we can get ( 2 m ) 5 ≡ 2 m ( m o d 1 0 ) .
All in all, the formula above satisfies all the natural numbers.
From the example they show that a 5 ≡ a m o d 1 0 for a = 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 m o d 1 0 . since ( − 1 ) 5 = − 1 , we also have a 5 ≡ a m o d 1 0 for a = − 1 , − 2 , − 3 , − 4 m o d 1 0 . Finally, 0 5 ≡ 0 m o d 1 0 and 5 5 ≡ 5 m o d 1 0 are trivial to check.
In my opinion, when it hits to the power of fifth, it will come back from the first. I got it from the sequence.
It could have been a trick though.
Like how the max number of regions a circle is divided into when inscribed with a complete graph on (n+1) nodes is
1, 2, 4, 8, 16, 31, ...
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Just for a different approach, the statement is equivalent to proving that a 5 − a is always a multiple of 1 0 .
Factoring, a 5 − a = a ( a 4 − 1 ) = a ( a − 1 ) ( a + 1 ) ( a 2 + 1 )
One of the factors a , a − 1 is even, so the product is even too.
Now, a 2 + 1 is a multiple of 5 if and only if a 2 − 4 is. But a 2 − 4 = ( a − 2 ) ( a + 2 ) , so that a 5 − a is a multiple of 5 so long as ( a − 2 ) ( a − 1 ) a ( a + 1 ) ( a + 2 ) is. But there's always one multiple of 5 among any five consecutive integers.
So a 5 − a is always an even multiple of 5 , which is to say a multiple of 1 0 , and a 5 always has the same last digit as a .