If the sum
n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2
is written as 2 1 − a ! 1 , what are the last three digits of a ?
This problem is posed by Lawrence L .
Details and assumptions
The last three digits of 1 0 2 3 is 0 2 3 . You may enter your answer as 0 2 3 or 2 3 .
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Darn, I was so close to getting to the answer! Great job!
very nice!!!
Excellent solution.
I used this same method!
Used the exact same method! Nice solution.
Didn't think of that. Excellent!
In a problem like this, it really helps if the final answer form is given. In this case, it is 2 1 − a ! 1 . This means that this is a telescopic series. So, we have to simplify the given expression as a difference of two consecutive terms. This was the motivation for my approach.
We have n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 . Consider the denominator. We will simply it first.
n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! = n ! × [ 1 + ( n + 1 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ] = n ! ( 1 + n + 1 + n 2 + 3 n + 2 )
⇒ n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! = n ! × ( 1 + n + 1 + n 2 + 3 n + 2 ) = n ! × ( n 2 + 4 n + 4 ) = n ! × ( n + 2 ) 2
Hence, our expression n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 = n ! × ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 2 = n ! × ( n + 2 ) 1
⇒ n ! × ( n + 2 ) 1 = n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1
So we have n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 [ ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 ]
Plugging in values of n gives us
n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 [ ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 ] = ( 2 ! 1 − 3 ! 1 ) + ( 3 ! 1 − 4 ! 1 ) . . . + ( 2 1 1 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1 )
As is evident, all consecutive terms (other than the first and the last terms) get cancelled out.
So n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 = 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1 = 2 ! 1 − a ! 1 ⇒ a = 2 1 1 3
So the answer is 1 1 3
this is great
First, we would try to simplify the k t h term of the sequence so that we break it into the difference of two terms, such that we could easily sum of the series.
Now take k ! common from the denominator, we have -
k ! k + 2 × 1 + ( k + 1 ) + ( k + 1 ) ( k + 2 ) 1
= k ! k + 2 × ( k + 2 ) 2 1
= k ! × ( k + 2 ) 1
Now multiplying the numerator and denominator by k + 1 gives us - ( k + 2 ) ! k + 1
which can be written as - ( k + 2 ) ! k + 2 − ( k + 2 ) ! 1 ⇒ ( k + 1 ) ! 1 − ( k + 2 ) ! 1
Now we just need to sum the series -
k = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( k + 1 ) ! 1 − ( k + 2 ) ! 1
= ( 2 ! 1 − 3 ! 1 ) + ( 3 ! 1 − 4 ! 1 ) + … + ( 2 1 1 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1 )
= 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1
Hence a = 2 1 1 3 . So the last three digits of a would be 1 1 3
The approach is to try small cases. If we let the upper limit of summation be k , then we have k = 1 = 3 1 = 2 1 − 3 ! 1 k = 2 = 3 1 + 8 1 = 2 4 1 1 = 2 1 − 4 ! 1 k = 3 = 3 1 + 8 1 + 3 0 1 = 1 2 0 5 9 = 2 1 − 5 ! 1 Clearly, there is a pattern: a = k + 2 . We can prove this by induction. Thus, our answer is 2 1 1 1 + 2 = 2 1 1 3 ⇒ 1 1 3 .
Can you write out how to "prove this by induction"?
nice approach. Congratulations.
Checking the denominator:
n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! = n ! ( 1 + n + 1 + ( n + ! ) ( n + 2 )
= n ! ( n + 2 ) ( 1 + n + 1 ) = n ! ( n + 2 ) 2
Now , n ! ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 2 = n ! ( n + 2 ) 1
Multiply and divide by n + 1 to get
( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! ( n + 2 ) − 1 = ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1
Clearly, applying summation, the sum telescopes to 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1
Hence the answer is 2 1 1 3
n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! = n ! ( 1 + ( n + 1 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) = n ! ( n + 2 ) 2 .
So n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 = n ! ( n + 2 ) 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! ( n + 2 ) − 1 = ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 . This series telescopes.
Now ∑ n = 1 2 1 1 1 ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 = 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1 = 2 ! 1 − a ! 1 .
So comparing last three digits are 1 1 3 .
Don't know how to make limits appear directly below ∑ .
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Use
\sum\limits_{lower limit}^{upper limit}
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\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^{2011} f(n) yields n = 1 ∑ 2 0 1 1 f ( n )
Mine is quite same!
Using the fact that n ! = n ( n − 1 ) ! , we can write the sum as :
S = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! + ( n + 1 ) n ! + ( n + 2 ) ( n + 1 ) n ! n + 2 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( 1 + ( n + 1 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ) n + 2 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( ( n + 2 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ) n + 2 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( n + 2 ) ( 1 + n + 1 ) n + 2 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( n + 2 ) 1
Using some algebraic manipulations , we can write :
S = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( n + 2 ) 1 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n + 1 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 + 1 − 1 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 − 1 = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 ) ∴ S = n = 1 ∑ 2 1 1 1 ( ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 )
The sum is now in the form of a telescoping sum , therefore :
S = ( 1 + 1 ) ! 1 − ( ( 2 1 1 1 + 1 ) + 1 ) ! 1 = 2 1 − ( 2 1 1 3 ) ! 1 , ∵ S = 2 1 − a ! 1 ∴ a = 2 1 1 3
∴ The last three digits of a are 1 1 3
What I did is that I just checked The pattern I put 1 in the above equation than checked the value of a. a=3. than for n= 2 in the above equation I check the value of a , it came out to be 4, so for n = n the value of a should be a=n+2 so for n= 2111 the value of a should be a = 2113
We want to compute Sum 1/(n! (n+2)) let f(i) = 1/[(n+2)!] so -(f(i)-f(i-1)) = 1/(n! (n+2)) then it is easy to use a telescopic
Clarified by using Latex \( \sum {1/(n!(n+2))}~~ let f(i) = 1/(n+2)! ~~so
-(f(i)-f(i-1)) = 1/(n!(n+2)) \) ~~then~ it~is~easy~to~use~a~ telescopic
FROM THE DENOMINATOR TAKE n! COMMON AND FACTORISE IT TO GET ( n + 2 ) 2
ONE OF THE (n+2) WILL BE CANCELLED.
MULTIPLY (n+1) IN NUMERATOR AND DENOMINATOR
DENOMINATOR CHANGES TO (n+2)!
CHANGE n+1=n+2-1
FACTORISE TO GET 1/(n+1)!-1/(n+2)!
PUT SOME VALUES TO OBTAIN A TELESCOPING SERIES
ANSWER-1/2!-1/2113!
SO 1 1 3
Taking n=1 sum = (1/3) = (1/2) - (1/6)... therefore a! = 3! or a=3
Taking n=2 sum = (11/24) = (1/2) - (1/24)... therefore a! = 4! or a=4
Taking n=3 sum = (59/120) = (1/2) - (1/120)... therefore a! = 5! or a=5
As seen above, the diff between n and a is 2 Therfore for n=2111, a will be 2111+2=2113 Therefore the entered answer has to be 113
[(n+2)/n!+(n+1)!+(n+2)!]=1/n!(n+2) [on solving] 1/n!(n+2)=1/[n!+(n+1)!]=1/(n+1)!-1/(n+2)! now sum(1 to 2111)[(n+2)/n!+(n+1)!+(n+2)!]=(1/2!-1/3!)+(1/3!-1/4!)+........................(1/2112!-1/2113!) =1/2-1/2113! so last three digit of 2113 is 113
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Let P ( n ) = n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 . We can use some algebra to rework this expression: n ! + ( n + 1 ) ! + ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 = n ! + n ! ( n + 1 ) + n ! ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) n + 2 =
= n ! ( 1 + ( n + 1 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ) n + 2 = n ! ( ( n + 2 ) + ( n + 1 ) ( n + 2 ) ) n + 2 =
= n ! ( n + 2 ) 2 n + 2 = n ! ( n + 2 ) 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! n + 1 = ( n + 2 ) ! n + 2 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1 =
= ( n + 1 ) ! 1 − ( n + 2 ) ! 1
When the sum on the question is extended, we have: P ( 1 ) + P ( 2 ) + P ( 3 ) + ⋯ + P ( 2 1 1 1 ) = = 2 1 − 3 ! 1 + 3 ! 1 − 4 ! 1 + 4 ! 1 − ⋯ − 2 1 1 2 ! 1 + 2 1 1 2 ! 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1
Using the telescoping sum technique, we have: 2 1 − 2 1 1 3 ! 1 . Then, a = 2 1 1 3 and the answer is 1 1 3 .