Add up the first cubes, and you get the following sequence: These are all square numbers; their square roots are which are all triangular numbers; and this pattern continues.
If we define the sum of powers to be for non-negative integers , then the above fact can be written as
Question : is there another such that we can write as a product of (finitely many) other sums of powers?
Bonus: what's the relevance of the problem's title?
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All of the S p are polynomials in n . The first few are S 0 ( n ) = n , S 1 ( n ) = 2 1 n 2 + 2 1 n , S 2 ( n ) = 3 1 n 3 + 2 1 n 2 + 6 1 n , S 3 ( n ) = 4 1 n 4 + 2 1 n 3 + 4 1 n These are normally written in a factorised form, but in this form we note that the leading term appears to be p + 1 1 n p + 1 . This is familiar as the result of integrating the function n p , which makes sense; it's easy to prove this either by considering the limit as n → ∞ or by using the method of differences .
Now, let's say we have a solution to the problem, p ; ie for some non-negative integers a 1 , a 2 , ⋯ , a k we have S p ( n ) ≡ S a 1 ( n ) ⋅ S a 2 ( n ) ⋯ S a k ( n )
Comparing the leading terms, p + 1 1 n p + 1 ≡ ( a 1 + 1 ) ( a 2 + 1 ) ⋯ ( a k + 1 ) 1 n a 1 + a 2 + ⋯ + a k + k
The 1 s in this expression make it untidy; if we instead write b i = a i + 1 and q = p + 1 it's just q 1 n q ≡ b 1 ⋅ b 2 ⋯ b k 1 n b 1 + b 2 + ⋯ + b k
Now, both the power and the coefficient need to match; so q = 1 ∑ k b i = 1 ∏ k b i and we're looking for sets of numbers whose sum is equal to their product.
In the p = 3 case, this is 2 + 2 = 2 × 2 = 4 .
Let's assume b 1 ≤ b 2 ≤ ⋯ b k . Let's also assume (for now) that b 1 > 1 .
Now, 1 ∏ k b i ≥ 2 k − 1 b k and 1 ∑ k b i ≤ k b k
so for any solutions to exist, we need 2 k − 1 b k ≤ k b k ie 2 k − 1 ≤ k
2 k − 1 grows far more quickly than k ; the only solutions are k = 1 (not allowed) and k = 2 . It's easy to check that the only solution with k = 2 corresponds to the example in the question.
Now, we've only proved that no other solutions exist when b 1 > 1 . There are, in fact, infinitely many sets of positive integers with equal sum and product if you allow b 1 = 1 ; for instance ( 1 , 2 , 3 ) , ( 1 , 1 , 2 , 4 ) and so on.
However, b 1 = 1 implies that S 0 ( n ) divides S p ( n ) . But S 0 ( n ) = 1 0 + 2 0 + ⋯ + n 0 = n ; this provides a counterexample, because S p ( 2 ) is odd whenever p > 0 .
So the only solution is the example given in the question.