∫ − 2 π 2 π [ e sin ( x ) cos ( x ) ] d x = a − a 1 , a > 0 , a = ?
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Sir, can you please explain how the limits change to +1/-1 from pi/2 to -pi/2. I know it must be a very basic concept that I apparently don't know. I'll learn happily if you respond.
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Yeah so when you use substitution like that you plug your limits of integration into what you’re using to substitute in this case: let “y” =sin(x) so the limits in the y world become sin(pi/2) and sin(-pi/2) remember the Unit circle and that’s 1 and -1. If you’re not sure about this get some paper and play around with a general case: integral of f(g(x))•g’(x)dx
As a matter of fact both 'e' and '-1/e' can be the values of 'a' in the problem
d(exp(sin(x))) = exp(sin(x))cos(x)dx
Always remember, when there is "e" in the integral, the answer is always in the form of "e"
Not true, we could have e ln ∣ x ∣ .
Let u = sinx Derivative of u = cosx Limits of integration u=1, u = -1 Integration of e power u is same Substitute upper limit and lower limit in e^u = e^1 -e^-1 Compare both left and right side values hence a = e
If we let u = sin x then d x d u = cos x . Substituting into the integral gets ∫ − 2 π 2 π d x d u e u d x = ∫ − 1 1 e u d u = ( e u + C ) ∣ − 1 1 = e − e 1 That means a = e .
It can only be solved by"By Parts".
Substitution is better.
There are mainly 2 easy way i can see.. 1) Let, e^sinx =t 2) Use Leibniz rule
use substitution: u = s i n ( x ) ↔ d u = c o s ( x ) d x
utilize: ∫ e u d u = e u + C and 2nd fundamental theorem of calculus
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Put y = sin x
Then
dy = cos x dx
Our function will be
f(y) = e^y
The limits of integration are 1 to -1
Then the answer is
e - 1/e
a = e