Direct Substitution

Calculus Level 3

π 2 π 2 [ e sin ( x ) cos ( x ) ] d x = a 1 a , a > 0 , a = ? \large \int_{-\frac \pi 2 }^{\frac \pi 2 } \bigg [ e^{ \sin(x)} \cos (x )\bigg ] \ dx = a - \frac 1 a, \ \ \ a > 0, \ \ \ \ \ a = \ ?

π \pi e e None of these choices ϕ \phi

This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and, finally, (c) loading the non-javascript version of this page . We're sorry about the hassle.

10 solutions

Gamal Sultan
Apr 11, 2015

Put y = sin x

Then

dy = cos x dx

Our function will be

f(y) = e^y

The limits of integration are 1 to -1

Then the answer is

e - 1/e

a = e

Sir, can you please explain how the limits change to +1/-1 from pi/2 to -pi/2. I know it must be a very basic concept that I apparently don't know. I'll learn happily if you respond.

Shweta Dharmadhikari - 5 years, 4 months ago

Log in to reply

Yeah so when you use substitution like that you plug your limits of integration into what you’re using to substitute in this case: let “y” =sin(x) so the limits in the y world become sin(pi/2) and sin(-pi/2) remember the Unit circle and that’s 1 and -1. If you’re not sure about this get some paper and play around with a general case: integral of f(g(x))•g’(x)dx

Benjamin Brown - 11 months ago
Karan Jain
Apr 5, 2015

As a matter of fact both 'e' and '-1/e' can be the values of 'a' in the problem

Thanks. I've added that a a is positive.

Brilliant Mathematics Staff - 6 years, 2 months ago
Joe Potillor
Dec 1, 2016

Rachit Patel
Apr 11, 2015

d(exp(sin(x))) = exp(sin(x))cos(x)dx

Ubaidullah Khan
Apr 11, 2015

Always remember, when there is "e" in the integral, the answer is always in the form of "e"

Moderator note:

Not true, we could have e ln x e^{ \ln \mid x \mid } .

Manthar Ali
Apr 1, 2015

Let u = sinx Derivative of u = cosx Limits of integration u=1, u = -1 Integration of e power u is same Substitute upper limit and lower limit in e^u = e^1 -e^-1 Compare both left and right side values hence a = e

If we let u = sin x u=\sin x then d u d x = cos x \frac{du}{dx}=\cos x . Substituting into the integral gets π 2 π 2 d u d x e u d x = 1 1 e u d u = ( e u + C ) 1 1 = e 1 e \int_{-\frac{\pi}{2}}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{du}{dx} e^{u} dx = \int_{-1}^{1} e^{u} du = \left(e^u + C\right)|_{-1}^{1} = e - \frac{1}{e} That means a = e a=e .

Abdul Wasio
Mar 5, 2016

It can only be solved by"By Parts".

Substitution is better.

Tapas Mazumdar - 4 years, 4 months ago
Suprabhat Das
Jun 8, 2021

There are mainly 2 easy way i can see.. 1) Let, e^sinx =t 2) Use Leibniz rule

Bostang Palaguna
Dec 27, 2020

use substitution: u = s i n ( x ) d u = c o s ( x ) d x u = sin(x) \leftrightarrow du = cos(x) dx

utilize: e u d u = e u + C \int e^u du = e^u + C and 2nd fundamental theorem of calculus

0 pending reports

×

Problem Loading...

Note Loading...

Set Loading...