I 1 I 2 I 3 I 4 = = = = ∫ 0 π / 2 1 + sin x cos x sin x − cos x d x ∫ 0 2 π cos 6 x d x ∫ − π / 2 π / 2 sin 3 x d x ∫ 0 1 ln ( x 1 − 1 ) d x
From the given anti-derivatives above, find the one whose value is not equal to 0 . If the anti-derivative is I n where n ∈ { 1 , 2 , 3 , 4 } , submit your answer as n .
Notation: ln ( ⋅ ) denotes the natural logarithm function .
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The reason for I2 being not 0 is clear as the function is always non negative. Others can be proved equal to 0 as in Chew-Seong's solution
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Case I 1
I 1 = ∫ 0 π / 2 1 + sin x cos x sin x − cos x d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 π / 2 ( 1 + sin x cos x sin x − cos x + 1 + cos x sin x cos x − sin x ) d x = 0 not the solution By ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x
Case I 2
Since the integrand cos 6 x ≥ 0 , ⟹ I 2 > 0 . The integral can be found using beta function as follows.
I 2 = ∫ 0 2 π cos 6 x d x = 4 ∫ 0 π / 2 cos 6 x d x = 4 ∫ 0 π / 2 cos 6 x sin 0 x d x = 2 B ( 2 7 , 2 1 ) = Γ ( 4 ) 2 Γ ( 2 7 ) Γ ( 2 1 ) = 3 ! ⋅ 2 3 2 ⋅ 3 ⋅ 5 π = 8 5 π = 0 the solution Since cos 6 x is even,
Case I 3
Since the integrand sin 3 x is odd, ⟹ I 3 = 0 as follows.
I 3 = ∫ − π / 2 π / 2 sin 3 x d x = ∫ − π / 2 0 sin 3 x d x + ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 3 x d x = ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 3 ( − x ) d x + ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 3 x d x = − ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 3 x d x + ∫ 0 π / 2 sin 3 x d x = 0 not the solution
Case I 4
I 4 = ∫ 0 1 ln ( x 1 − 1 ) d x = ∫ 0 1 ln ( x 1 − x ) d x = ∫ 0 1 ( ln ( 1 − x ) − ln x ) d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 ( ln ( 1 − x ) − ln x + ln ( 1 − 1 + x ) − ln ( 1 − x ) ) d x = 2 1 ∫ 0 1 ( ln ( 1 − x ) − ln x + ln x − ln ( 1 − x ) ) d x = 0 not the solution By ∫ a b f ( x ) d x = ∫ a b f ( a + b − x ) d x
Answer: Therefore the answer is 2 .