Read the statements carefully.
[ 1 ] . If f ( x ) < g ( x ) for all x , then x → c lim f ( x ) < x → c lim g ( x ) provided that these limits exist.
[ 2 ] . If both x → c lim f ( x ) and x → c lim g ( x ) do not exist, then it is impossible for x → c lim ( f ( x ) + g ( x ) ) to exist.
[ 3 ] . If x → c lim f ( x ) = l and x → c lim f ( x ) = m , then l is always equal to m .
Which of these are true?
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@Mursalin Habib What would be the case regarding [3] when the limit is an infinite number ?
How can you say that statement (1) is false. I think it should be true. Your solution does not justify that it is false. Would you explain it a little more. From the functions you have assumed, l i m x → 0 f ( x ) < l i m x → 0 g ( x ) . so how is it possible ?
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x → 0 lim f ( x ) = x → 0 lim g ( x ) = 0 . The limit of f is equal to the limit of g, not less than.
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Yes the limits are equal but the functions are also equal at this point! Those two functions don't satisfy the question!
I'm pretty sure 1 is true. If it were not, then the comparison test for infinite series wouldn't make any sense.
is number 1 should be true???
I think the statement 1 should be true.
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[1] is false: f ( x ) = 0 , g ( x ) = x 2 for x = 0 and 1 if x = 0 , c = 0 .
[2] is false: f ( x ) = sin ( 1 / x ) , g ( x ) = 1 − sin ( 1 / x ) , c = 0 .
[3] is trivial.