Let d ( m , n ) denote the last digit of m n for positive integers m and n , where m is single-digit.
Find the sum of all possibles values of m such that n → ∞ lim d ( m , n ) exists.
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Very well articulated. Thank you +1
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You are welcome. I gave a like to this problem because this is the first time I prove a limit exists by proving it is equivalent to solving a congruence. That is definitely a fun idea.
Let's think about what it means for a limit to infinity x → ∞ lim f ( x ) = L to exist: as f ( x ) approaches ∞ , its values converge to a single, limiting value. This means that the limits to infinity of cyclical or periodic functions, like sin x , fail to exist, because they oscillate infinitely.
Now let's consider the function d ( m , n ) and look at the set of last digits of powers:
The last digit of powers of 1 is always The last digits of powers of 2 repeat in a cycle of The last digits of powers of 3 repeat in a cycle of The last digits of powers of 4 repeat in a cycle of The last digit of powers of 5 is always The last digit of powers of 6 is always The last digits of powers of 7 repeat in a cycle of The last digits of powers of 8 repeat in a cycle of The last digits of powers of 9 repeat in a cycle of 1 4 , 8 , 6 , 2 9 , 7 , 1 , 3 6 , 4 5 6 9 , 3 , 1 , 7 4 , 2 , 6 , 8 1 , 9
The set of the last digits of powers of 2 , 3 , 4 , 7 , 8 , 9 all form periodic sequences. This means that n → ∞ lim d ( m , n ) fails to exist for m = 2 , 3 , 4 , 7 , 8 , 9 . Only the last digits of powers of 1 , 5 , and 6 are always the same - they are the respective powers themselves, in fact. Thus, for m = 1 , 5 , 6 , n → ∞ lim d ( m , n ) exists, because their value stays constant.
Hence, our answer is 1 + 5 + 6 = 1 2
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Here is another, perhaps more systematic, approach. Consider the following alternate definition of d : d ( m , n ) is equal to the least positive number that is ≡ m n m o d 1 0 . This is because taking the congruence mod 10 is known for giving us the last digit. With this in mind I will prove the following equivalence:
A number m has the sought property if and only if m 2 ≡ m m o d 1 0 . First I will prove this in the reverse direction. If we have that m 2 ≡ m m o d 1 0 then d ( m , 2 ) = d ( m , 1 ) . And then m 3 ≡ m × m 2 ≡ m × m ≡ m 2 ≡ m m o d 1 0 so d ( m , 3 ) = d ( m , 2 ) , and so on. So we will have a constant sequence and as it is known, constant sequences converge.
In the other direction let's argue by contradiction. Suppose that m 2 ≡ m m o d 1 0 . Then d ( m , 2 ) = d ( m , 1 ) . Thinking about this, consider the following lemma: For all m , d ( m , 5 ) = d ( m , 1 ) .
Proof: We just need to show that the congruence x 5 ≡ x m o d 1 0 holds for all integers. This may be assumed but to prove it simply use the Chinese Remainder Theorem to break it down into x 5 ≡ x m o d 5 and x 5 ≡ x m o d 2 . Here Fermat's little theorem proves all x work for either congruence and then via the Chinese Remainder Theorem this implies all x have the property x 5 ≡ x m o d 1 0 .
So then we would have d ( m , 6 ) = d ( m , 5 ) . But then we would also have d ( m , 2 5 ) = d ( m , 5 ) so d ( m , 2 6 ) = d ( m , 2 5 ) and so on. And this will occur infinitely often at every power of 5 and because d always takes integer values this means that the difference between d ( m , 5 n ) and d ( m , 5 n + 1 ) never closes so the limit cannot exist.
So the limit will exist for a given m if and only if m 2 ≡ m m o d 1 0 so let's solve this congruence. We really just have the polynomial congruence m 2 − m ≡ 0 m o d 1 0 so let's solve the congruences:
x 2 − x ≡ 0 m o d 2 ⟹ x ≡ 0 , 1 m o d 2
x 2 − x ≡ 0 m o d 5 ⟹ x ≡ 0 , 1 m o d 5 .
If x ≡ 0 m o d 2 and x ≡ 0 m o d 5 we get x = 1 0 which isn't single digit so it is not counted. If x ≡ 0 m o d 2 , x ≡ 1 m o d 5 we get x = 6 . If x ≡ 1 m o d 2 , x ≡ 0 m o d 5 we get x = 5 and if x ≡ 1 m o d 2 , x ≡ 1 m o d 5 we get x = 1 .
This means the answer to the problem is 1 + 5 + 6 = 1 2 .