Limits

Calculus Level 1

lim n a n n ! \large \lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{a^n}{n!}

Let a a be a positive real constant. Find the value of the limit above.

Notation : ! ! denotes the factorial function. For example, 8 ! = 1 × 2 × 3 × × 8 8! = 1\times2\times3\times\cdots\times8 .


The answer is 0.

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3 solutions

Alex G
May 19, 2016

The Taylor series of e x e^x centered at 0 is

n = 0 x n n ! \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{x^n}{n!}}

It is known that this series converges for all x, real or imagenary (This can be proved by the ratio test - try it). The limit test states that if

lim n S n 0 \lim_{n\to\infty}{S_n}\neq 0

Then the series S n S_n diverges. Therefore,

lim n x n n ! \lim_{n\to\infty}{\dfrac{x^n}{n!}}

Must be 0 \boxed{0} , or else the series would diverge.

You can use L'Hopital, I believe (?). a a is a constant which will turn to 0. n ! n! can be considered as a number n n with ( n 1 ) ! (n-1)! as a coefficient so that it will turn to ( n 1 ) ! (n-1)! . Dividing 0 0 with ( n 1 ) ! (n-1)! will result in 0. Please CMIIW and forgive my terrible English, thank you.

Nanda Rahsyad - 5 years ago

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L'Hopitals rule actually fails. Note that d d x ( a x ) 0 \dfrac{d}{dx}(a^x)\neq 0 . This can be seen as a x = e x ln a a^x=e^{x\ln{a}} , and d d x ( e x ln a ) = e x ln a ln a = a x ln a \dfrac{d}{dx}(e^{x\ln{a}})=e^{x\ln{a}}\ln{a}=a^x\ln{a} . The derivative of the factorial is not as elementary, but suffice to to say that, for integral n:

d d x ( n ! ) = ( n 1 ) ! ( γ + k = 1 n 1 k ) \dfrac{d}{dx}(n!)=(n-1)!\left( -\gamma + \sum_{k=1}^{n} \dfrac{1}{k} \right)

(I encourage you to look into the factorial and its extension, the Gamma function, as it an interesting topic). After applying L'Hoptials, we have for integral n:

lim n a x ln a ( n 1 ) ! ( γ + k = 1 n 1 k ) = \large \lim_{n\to\infty} \dfrac{a^x\ln{a}}{(n-1)!\left( -\gamma + \sum_{k=1}^{n} \frac{1}{k} \right)}=\frac{\infty}{\infty}

It is possible that repeated alliterations of L'Hopitals would succeed, however, it would be extremely messy.

Alex G - 5 years ago

can u elaborate?

divyansh tripathi - 5 years ago

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Sure. The Taylor series of e x e^x centered at 0 is

n = 0 x n n ! \sum_{n=0}^{\infty}{\dfrac{x^n}{n!}}

It is known that this series converges for all x, real or imagenary. The limit test states that if

lim n S n 0 \lim_{n\to\infty}{S_n}\neq 0

Then the series S n S_n diverges. Therefore,

lim n x n n ! \lim_{n\to\infty}{\dfrac{x^n}{n!}}

Must be 0, or else the series would diverge.

Alex G - 5 years ago

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Can you update it in your solution?

Ashish Menon - 5 years ago
Leonardo Vannini
Jan 22, 2017

Preliminary observations:

  • Throughout the proof I'll consider the case n > a n>a because n n\rightarrow \infty . WLOG I'll consider a N a\in N
  • Proposition: n ! > a ! ( a + 1 ) n a n!>a!{ (a+1) }^{ n-a } ; the proof (*)

Proof:

Proposition 0 < a n n ! < a n a ! ( a + 1 ) n a \Longrightarrow \quad 0<\frac { { a }^{ n } }{ n! } <\frac { { a }^{ n } }{ a!{ (a+1) }^{ n-a } } 0 < lim n a n n ! < lim n a n a ! ( a + 1 ) n a = l \Longleftrightarrow \quad 0<\lim _{ n\rightarrow \infty }{ \frac { { a }^{ n } }{ n! } } <\lim _{ n\rightarrow \infty }{ \frac { { a }^{ n } }{ a!{ (a+1) }^{ n-a } } }=l

Let's compute (or calculate?) l l

l = lim n a n a ! ( a + 1 ) n a = ( a + 1 ) a a ! lim n a n ( a + 1 ) n = k 0 = 0 l=\lim _{ n\rightarrow \infty }{ \frac { { a }^{ n } }{ a!{ (a+1) }^{ n-a } } } =\frac { { (a+1) }^{ a } }{ a! } \lim _{ n\rightarrow \infty }{ \frac { { a }^{ n } }{ { (a+1) }^{ n } } =k } \cdot 0=0

The truth of the thesis follow from the squeeze theorem .

(*) Proof of the preposition: 1 2 3 . . . a ( a + 1 ) . . . n > 1 2 3 . . . a ( a + 1 ) n a ( a + 1 ) . . . n > ( a + 1 ) n a 1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot ...\cdot a\cdot (a+1)\cdot ...\cdot n>1\cdot 2\cdot 3\cdot ...\cdot a\cdot { (a+1) }^{ n-a }\quad \Leftrightarrow \quad (a+1)\cdot ...\cdot n>{ (a+1) }^{ n-a }

e x = k = 0 x k k ! e^{x} = \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} \frac {x^{k}}{k!}

U n < 1 U_n < 1

The limit will have to be 0 \boxed 0 .

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