x → 0 lim x 2 1 ( x sin x − cos x ) = ?
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L'hopital's rule generally makes quick work of these expressions, as long as we verify that they have the indeterminate form.
s i n x = x − 3 ! x 3 + 5 ! x 5 + . . .
Therefore, x s i n x = 1 − 6 x 2 + . . .
Also, c o s x = 1 − 2 ! x 2 + 4 ! x 4 + . . .
Therefore, lim x → 0 x 2 1 ( x s i n x − c o s x )
= lim x → 0 x 2 1 ( ( 1 − 6 x 2 ) − ( 1 − 2 x 2 ) ) .......... (Higher order terms may be neglected with respect to x 2 term, which has a non-zero coefficient.)
= lim x → 0 x 2 1 3 x 2
= 3 1
Edit: I had made this problem to illustrate that ' lim x → 0 x s i n x is not always 1'. In this regard, please see the comment by Calvin Lin. (I still need to grok it.)
Actually, lim x → 0 x sin x is always equal to 1, because we are taking the limit.
What you are saying is slightly different and important, which is that we have to consider higher order terms when the lower order terms cancel out.
In particular, we can only apply lim f ( x ) g ( x ) = lim f ( x ) lim g ( x ) when these limits are finite.
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Relevant wiki: L'Hopital's Rule - Basic
L = x → 0 lim x 2 1 ( x sin x − cos x ) = x → 0 lim x 3 sin x − x cos x = x → 0 lim 3 x 2 cos x − cos x + x sin x = x → 0 lim 3 x sin x = x → 0 lim 3 cos x = 3 1 A 0/0 case, L’H o ˆ pital’s rule applies. Differentiate up and down. A 0/0 case, differentiate again.