Limits of Functions!

Calculus Level 3

Let f : ( 1 , ) R f: (1, \infty) \to \mathbb{R} be a differentiable function such that: f ( x ) = x 2 f ( x ) 2 x 2 ( f ( x ) 2 + 1 ) for all x>1 f'(x) = \frac{x^2 - f(x)^2}{x^2 (f(x)^2 + 1)} \qquad \mbox{for all x>1} what is the lim x f ( x ) = ? \lim_{x \to \infty} f(x) = ? .

0 0 1 2 \frac{1}{2} \infty 2 2 1 1

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1 solution

Hana Wehbi
Dec 18, 2018

The function g ( x ) = f ( x ) + x g(x) = f(x)+x satisfies the differential equation: g ( x ) = 1 + 1 ( g ( x ) / x 1 ) 2 1 + x 2 ( g ( x ) / x 1 ) 2 . g'(x) = 1 + \frac{1 - (g(x)/x - 1)^2}{1 + x^2(g(x)/x - 1)^2}. This implies that g ( x ) > 0 g'(x) > 0 for all x > 1 x > 1 , so the limit L 1 = lim x + g ( x ) L_1 = \lim_{x \to +\infty} g(x) exists. In addition, we cannot have L 1 < + L_1 < +\infty , or else we would have lim x + g ( x ) = 0 \lim_{x \to +\infty} g'(x) = 0 whereas the differential equation forces this limit to be 1. Hence g ( x ) + g(x) \to +\infty as x + x \to +\infty .

Similarly, the function h ( x ) = f ( x ) + x h(x) = -f(x) + x satisfies the differential equation h ( x ) = 1 1 ( h ( x ) / x 1 ) 2 1 + x 2 ( h ( x ) / x 1 ) 2 . h'(x) = 1 - \frac{1 - (h(x)/x - 1)^2}{1 + x^2(h(x)/x - 1)^2}. This implies that h ( x ) 0 h'(x) \geq 0 for all x x , so the limit L 2 = lim x + h ( x ) L_2 = \lim_{x \to +\infty} h(x) exists. In addition, we cannot have L 2 < + L_2 < +\infty , or else we would have lim x + h ( x ) = 0 \lim_{x \to +\infty} h'(x) = 0 whereas the differential equation forces this limit to be 1. Hence h ( x ) + h(x) \to +\infty as x + x \to +\infty .

For some x 1 > 1 x_1 > 1 , we must have g ( x ) , h ( x ) > 0 g(x), h(x) > 0 for all x x 1 x \geq x_1 . For x x 1 x \geq x_1 , we have f ( x ) < x |f(x)| < x and hence f ( x ) > 0 f'(x) > 0 , so the limit L = lim x + f ( x ) L = \lim_{x \to +\infty} f(x) exists. Once again, we cannot have L < + L < +\infty , or else we would have lim x + f ( x ) = 0 \lim_{x \to +\infty} f'(x) = 0 whereas the original differential equation (e.g., in the form given in the first solution) forces this limit to be 1 / ( 1 + L 2 ) > 0 1/(1 + L^2) > 0 . Hence f ( x ) + f(x) \to +\infty as x x \to \infty , as desired.

Good prob, Hana!

tom engelsman - 1 year, 10 months ago

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Thanks Tom.

Hana Wehbi - 1 year, 10 months ago

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And a clever solution, too!

tom engelsman - 1 year, 10 months ago

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