Liouville and another beautiful year

Calculus Level 4

Suppose f : C C f: \mathbb{C} \to \mathbb{C} is a holomorphic function. Furthermore, assume f ( z ) 2016 z |f(z)| \le 2016|z| for all z C z\in \mathbb{C} .

If f ( 2016 ) = 6048 + 8064 i f(2016) = 6048 + 8064i , what is f ( 3 4 i ) f(3 - 4i) ?


Note: i = 1 i = \sqrt{-1}


Inspiration


The answer is 25.

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2 solutions

Chew-Seong Cheong
Aug 21, 2016

From f ( 2016 ) = 6048 + 8064 i f(2016) = 6048 + 8064i f ( z ) = 3 z + 4 z i \implies f(z) = 3z+4zi . Therefore,

f ( 3 4 i ) = 3 ( 3 4 i ) + 4 ( 3 4 i ) i = 9 12 i + 12 i 16 i 2 = 9 + 16 = 25 \begin{aligned} f(3-4i) & = 3(3-4i) + 4(3-4i)i \\ & = 9-12i + 12i -16i^2 \\ & = 9 + 16 \\ & = \boxed{25} \end{aligned}

Correct, thanks...

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago
Mark Hennings
Aug 31, 2016

Since f ( z ) f(z) is entire, it has a Taylor series expansion f ( z ) = n = 0 a n z n z C f(z) \; = \; \sum_{n=0}^\infty a_nz^n \qquad z \in \mathbb{C} where a n = 1 2 π i z = R f ( x ) z n + 1 d z n 0 a_n \; = \; \frac{1}{2\pi i}\int_{|z|=R} \frac{f(x)}{z^{n+1}}\,dz \qquad n \ge 0 where this formula for a n a_n works for any R > 0 R > 0 . In this case we see that a n 1 2 π 0 2 π f ( R e i θ ) R n + 1 R d θ 2016 R n 1 n 0 |a_n| \; \le \; \frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} \frac{|f(Re^{i\theta})|}{R^{n+1}}\,Rd\theta \; \le \; \frac{2016}{R^{n-1}} \qquad n \ge 0 Letting n n \to \infty we deduce that a n = 0 a_n = 0 for all n 2 n \ge 2 , and hence that f ( z ) f(z) is a linear polynomial. Since f ( 0 ) = 0 f(0) = 0 we deduce that f ( z ) = k z f(z) = kz for some constant k k . Fitting the information about f ( 2016 ) f(2016) , we see that k = 3 + 4 i k = 3+4i . Thus f ( 3 4 i ) = 3 2 + 4 2 = 25 f(3-4i) = 3^2 + 4^2 =\boxed{25} .

Fantastic again (+1), thank you sir... My solution is simply applying Liouville's theorem for entire bounded holomorphic =analytic functions (functions with power series). In this case, a 0 = f ( 0 ) = 0 g ( z ) = f ( z ) z a_0 = f(0) = 0 \Rightarrow g(z) = \frac{f(z)}{z} is a holomorphic = analytic entire bounded function and this implies that g ( z ) = Constant g(z) = \text{ Constant} ... and the rest is similar to Chew's solution... One step closer to the solution of the Riemann hypothesis, haha. Maybe next time...

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago

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The argument I gave is, essentially, the proof of Liouville's Theorem. if f f is bounded then a n = 0 a_n =0 for all n 1 n \ge 1 .

Mark Hennings - 4 years, 9 months ago

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Good point(+1).Now that you say, you make reason, I had not realized. I remember I got Lioville's theorem as a consequence of the maximum modulus theorem and the proof of this one is very similar to your proof... Sorry, I didn't remember that everything is very connected in Complex Analysis...

Guillermo Templado - 4 years, 9 months ago

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