Logarithmic spiral

Calculus Level 3

A particle moves along a spiral so that its path is given by r ( t ) = e α t ( cos ( t ) sin ( t ) ) , t [ 0 , ) \vec r(t) = e^{-\alpha t} \left( \begin{array}{c} \cos(t) \\ \sin(t) \end{array} \right), \quad t \in [0,\infty) with the time t t and a decay constant α = 0.1 \alpha = 0.1 . What is the total distance of the path from r ( 0 ) = ( 1 , 0 ) \vec r(0) = (1,0) to r ( ) = ( 0 , 0 ) \vec r(\infty) = (0,0) , that is covered by the particle for all time?


The answer is 10.05.

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1 solution

Markus Michelmann
Sep 24, 2017

The velocity of the particle is given by v ( t ) = r ˙ ( t ) = α e α t ( cos ( t ) sin ( t ) ) e r ( t ) + e α t ( sin ( t ) cos ( t ) ) e ϕ ( t ) = e α t ( e ϕ ( t ) α e r ( t ) ) \vec v(t) = \dot{\vec{r}} (t) = - \alpha e^{-\alpha t} \underbrace{\left( \begin{array}{c} \cos(t) \\ \sin(t) \end{array} \right)}_{\vec e_r(t)} + e^{-\alpha t} \underbrace{\left( \begin{array}{c} -\sin(t) \\ \cos(t) \end{array} \right) }_{\vec e_\phi(t)} = e^{-\alpha t} (\vec e_\phi(t) - \alpha \vec e_r(t)) with e r = e ϕ = 1 |\vec e_r| = |\vec e_\phi| = 1 and e r e ϕ = 0 \vec e_r \cdot \vec e_\phi = 0 . Therefore, the absolute value of the velocity results to v ( t ) = v ( t ) = v ( t ) v ( t ) = 1 + α 2 e α t v(t) = |\vec v(t)| = \sqrt{\vec v(t) \cdot \vec v(t)} = \sqrt{1 + \alpha^2} \cdot e^{-\alpha t} By integrating the velocity over time, the path length is obtained: s = 0 v ( t ) d t = 1 + α 2 0 e α t d t = 1 + α 2 α 10.05 s = \int_0^\infty v(t) dt = \sqrt{1 + \alpha^2} \int_0^\infty e^{-\alpha t} dt = \frac{\sqrt{1 + \alpha^2}}{\alpha} \approx 10.05

We can actually do it directly without calculating the velocity , but that solution is more lengthy than yours . For a function y = f ( x ) y=f(x)

s = a b 1 + ( y ) 2 d x s = \int_{a}^{b} \sqrt{1+\left(y^{'}\right)^2 } dx

Sabhrant Sachan - 3 years, 8 months ago

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In princple, you're right. I just thought it would be more obvious from a physical point of view to speak of a velocity. Furthermore, the spiral can not be uniquely represented by a function y = f ( x ) y = f(x) , since several (or even infinite) y y values ​​are associated with an x x -value.

Markus Michelmann - 3 years, 8 months ago

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you are absolutely correct , we cannot uniquely represent it as y = f ( x ) y=f(x) that is why we will integrate it in the parametric form .

d y = ( α e α t sin t + e α t cos t ) d t d x = ( α e α t cos t e α t sin t ) d t dy = \left( -\alpha e^{-\alpha t} \sin{t} + e^{-\alpha t} \cos{t} \right) dt \\ dx = \left( -\alpha e^{-\alpha t} \cos{t} - e^{-\alpha t} \sin{t} \right) dt

The end result is the integral s = 1 + α 2 0 e α t d t s = \sqrt{1+\alpha^2} \int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-\alpha t} dt

Sabhrant Sachan - 3 years, 8 months ago

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