lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) ) + lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 ( x ) ) = 0
If x satisfy the equation above, then which one of these answer choices must be true?
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Is there a way to find that only 1 solution?
f ( x ) = lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) ) and g ( x ) = lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 ( x ) ) both are increasing functions so f ( x ) + g ( x ) is also increasing. So the given equation can have atmost one real solution.
In the given equation put x = 2 in LHS we get f ( x ) + g ( x ) = f ( 2 ) + g ( 2 ) is negative.
Put x = 1 0 0 and f ( x ) + g ( x ) = f ( 1 0 0 ) + g ( 1 0 0 ) is positive.
Since f ( x ) + g ( x ) is continuous in its domain. By bolzano's Intermediate value theorem there is a real number c such that f ( c ) + g ( c ) = 0 which is the only real solution becuase f ( x ) + g ( x ) is an increasing function and can cut x-axis at most once.
Moreover by above analysis this c lies somewhere in the interval ( 2 , 1 0 0 )
This is actually done by a method known in Real Analysis
Simple standard approach to this problem. After showing that there is at most one solution, you should still verify that there can be a solution.
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First of all, x > 3 2 so that the equation is well defined. We can rewrite the equation as: lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) ) = − lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 x ) = lo g 1 0 ( lo g 1 0 x 1 ) lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) = lo g 1 0 x 1 lo g 1 0 x lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) = 1 lo g 1 0 ( x 3 − 2 ) lo g 1 0 x = 1 ( x 3 − 2 ) lo g 1 0 x = 1 0 Now, let's define f ( x ) = ( x 3 − 2 ) lo g 1 0 x . In the interval x ∈ ( 3 2 , 3 3 ] , f ( x ) ≤ 1 , because ( x 3 − 2 ) ≤ 1 . It is evident that for x ∈ [ 3 3 , ∞ ) , f ( x ) is strictly increasing, and as f ( 3 3 ) = 1 , then there exists only one solution to the equation. ■