If a n = ( log 3 ) n r = 1 ∑ n r ! ( n − r ) ! r 2 , n ∈ N , then the sum of the series a 1 + a 2 + a 3 + … can be represented as
( ζ + log α ) ( γ log β ) .
Find the value of ζ + α + γ + β
ζ , α , γ , β are all positive integers.
α , β are prime numbers.
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Okay I 'am completing , Ur intial Task f ( x ) = ( 1 + x ) n = 1 + C 1 x + C 2 x 2 + . . . . . . . . . . . C n x n d i f f : f ′ ( x ) = n ( 1 + x ) n − 1 = C 1 + 2 C 2 x + . . . . . . . . . . n C n x n − 1 x f ′ ( x ) = n x ( 1 + x ) n − 1 = C 1 x + 2 C 2 x 2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . n C n x n d i f f : n ( 1 + x ) n − 1 + x n ( n − 1 ) ( 1 + x ) n − 2 = C 1 + 2 2 C 2 x + . . . . . . . . n 2 C n x n − 1 P u t : x = 1 n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 2 = r = 1 ∑ n r 2 C r
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Thank you :)
Nice use! Thanks, I am new to it!
Marvellous
Same solution at the same time!!
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Yea. Rather regrettable I guess. But anything I've left out is there in your solution and vice versa. So, cheers :)
Another way to compute
Let the required sum be equal to A.
It can be written as
A= 1 ∑ n r 2 r n n − 1 C r − 1 = n 1 ∑ n r n − 1 C r − 1 ....(1)
Now rewriting this series again in backward direction is same as replacing
r-1 by (n-r) or r by (n-(r-1))=(n-r+1). So
A= n 1 ∑ n ( n − r + 1 ) n − 1 C r − 1 ......(2).
Adding eq 1 and 2.
2A= n 1 ∑ n ( n + 1 ) n − 1 C r − 1
A= 2 n ( n + 1 ) 1 ∑ n n − 1 C r − 1 .
A= 2 n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 1
Does this problem qualify as a level 5 problem in Algebra?
It is easy to solve the problem once you know which series you need to manipulate and how do you need to do that. Begin with considering the well known expansion, ( 1 + x ) n = r = 0 ∑ n ( r n ) x r . My motivation to choose this was that appearance of terms similar to that in binomial coefficients in the general term of the given series. Differentiating it w.r.t. x , we obtain, n ( 1 + x ) n − 1 = r = 1 ∑ n ( r n ) r x r − 1 To get the r 2 in the expression we need to do a similar task but with a slight modification. Multiply both the sides by x again differentiate to get, n ( ( 1 + x ) n − 1 + ( n − 1 ) x ( 1 + x ) n − 2 ) = r = 1 ∑ n ( r n ) r 2 x r − 1 Substitute x = 1 to obtain, r = 1 ∑ n r ! ( n − r ) ! n ! r 2 = n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 2 ⇒ a n = n ! n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 2 ( log 3 ) n
So what we want is S = n = 1 ∑ ∞ a n .
Again, the term a n looks very similar to a well known expression - the Maclaurin series for e x . Let us apply the procedure once again but with a slight modification. So, first multiply by x and then differentiate. ∴ d x d ( x e x ) = d x d ( r = 1 ∑ ∞ r ! x r + 1 + x ) ⇒ e x ( x + 1 ) = r = 1 ∑ ∞ ( r + 1 ) r ! x r + 1 Differentiate once again to obtain, ⇒ e x ( x + 2 ) = r = 1 ∑ ∞ r ( r + 1 ) r ! x r − 1 Substitute x = 2 log 3 to change the above expression into something that we want to have. 9 ( 2 log 3 + 2 ) = r = 1 ∑ ∞ r ( r + 1 ) r ! ( 2 log 3 ) r − 1 9 ( 2 log 3 + 2 ) = log 3 2 r = 1 ∑ ∞ a r
∴ S = 1 8 ( 1 + log 3 ) 2 log 3 ⇒ S = ( 1 + log 3 ) ( 9 log 3 ) .
Compare with the given form to obtain the value of the constants and hence the answer = 4 .
You never said a and b had to be integers, so the answer could be anything.
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We have:
a n = n ! ( l o g 3 ) n 1 ∑ n r 2 ( r n )
Also: 1 ∑ n r 2 ( r n ) = n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 2 Proving/Verifying this fairly trivial result is left as an exercise to the reader(just love doing that :D).
Thus: a n = n ! ( l o g 3 ) n n ( n + 1 ) 2 n − 2 = 4 n ! ( 2 l o g 3 ) n ∗ n ( n + 1 ) = 4 n ! n ( n + 1 ) ( l o g 9 ) n
The n ! in the denominator motivates us to try and use the series of e x here. x e x = x + 1 ! x 2 + 2 ! x 3 + 3 ! x 4 . . .
Differentiating with respect to x 2 times we get: x e x + 2 e x = 1 ∑ ∞ r ! r ( r + 1 ) x r − 1
Finally, multiplying both sides by x and dividing by 4 we get:
4 x e x ( x + 2 ) = 1 ∑ ∞ 4 r ! r ( r + 1 ) x r
All that remains to be done is to substitute x = l o g 9 .
Upon doing so, the required expression becomes:
9 l o g 3 ( 1 + l o g 3 ) .
Answer= 9 + 3 + 3 + 1 = 4