Lovely problem

Calculus Level 4

Let f : R R \Bbb R \rightarrow \Bbb R be a continuous function which satisfies f ( x ) = 0 x f ( t ) dt f(x) = \displaystyle\int_0^x f(t) \text{dt} .
Then the value of f ( ln 5 ) f(\ln 5) is


The answer is 0.

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2 solutions

Otto Bretscher
Oct 17, 2015

Evaluating the given equation at x = 0 x=0 , we find that f ( 0 ) = 0 f(0)=0 .

The second fundamental theorem gives f ( x ) = f ( x ) f'(x)=f(x) , or f ( x ) f ( x ) = 0 f'(x)-f(x)=0 . Multiplying with the integrating factor e x e^{-x} , we can conclude that 0 = f ( x ) e x f ( x ) e x = d d x ( f ( x ) e x ) = 0 0=f'(x)e^{-x}-f(x)e^{-x}=\frac{d}{dx}(f(x)e^{-x})=0 . Thus f ( x ) e x = k f(x)e^{-x}=k for some constant k k . Now k = 0 k=0 since f ( 0 ) = 0 f(0)=0 , so that f ( x ) = 0 f(x)=0 for all x x . In particular, f ( ln 5 ) = 0 f(\ln{5})=\boxed{0}

But according to my solution, f ( x ) = ϕ f(x) = \phi , so, what's flaw in my solution @Calvin Lin sir

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Your answer is correct, but not the solution... you are dividing by 0 and taking the ln \ln of 0 along the way.

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 8 months ago

The flaw in your solution is that you divided by 0.

Calvin Lin Staff - 5 years, 7 months ago
Akhil Bansal
Oct 16, 2015

f ( x ) = 0 x f ( t ) dt . . 1 \large f(x) = \displaystyle\int_0^x f(t) \text{dt} \quad \quad ..\color{#3D99F6}{\boxed{1}} Applying Newton's Leibniz rule

f ( x ) = f ( x ) \Rightarrow f'(x) = f(x)
f ( x ) f ( x ) = 1 \Rightarrow \dfrac{f'(x)}{f(x)} = 1
Integration both sides with respect to dx \text{dx}

f ( x ) f ( x ) dx = dx \Rightarrow \displaystyle\int \dfrac{f'(x)}{f(x)}\text{dx} = \displaystyle\int \text{dx}
ln f ( x ) = x + c \Rightarrow \ln| f(x) | = x + c
f ( x ) = k e x . . 2 \Rightarrow f(x) = ke^x \quad \quad ..\color{#D61F06}{\boxed{2}}
Substituting value of 2 \color{#D61F06}2 in equation 1 \color{#3D99F6}1 ,

e x = 0 x k e t dt \Rightarrow e^x = \displaystyle\int_0^x ke^t \text{dt}
Again applying Newton's leibniz rule,

k e x = k ( e x 1 ) k = 0 \Rightarrow ke^x = k(e^x - 1) \Rightarrow k = 0
f ( x ) = 0 f ( ln 5 ) = 0 \therefore f(x) = 0 \Rightarrow \boxed{f(\ln 5) = 0}

Moderator note:

Note that when we divide by a variable, we only have 1 sided implication. In particular, we have to be very careful that we do not end up dividing by 0. If we do so, the conclusions are no longer valid.

Early on you divide by f ( x ) f(x) , later you take ln f ( x ) \ln|f(x)| , but then you show that f ( x ) = 0 f(x)=0 , meaning that you should not have performed those two operations (division and taking ln \ln ) in the first place ;)

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 8 months ago

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Great observation...thanks...then what's the correct solution?
Have you solved with some other method?

Akhil Bansal - 5 years, 8 months ago

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I will post a solution.

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 8 months ago

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