Lovely series

( 1 + 2 6 + 2 5 6 12 + 2 5 8 6 12 18 + ) 3 = ? \left(1+\dfrac {2}{6}+\dfrac {2\cdot5}{6\cdot12}+\dfrac {2\cdot5\cdot8}{6\cdot12\cdot18}+\cdots\right)^3 = \ ?


The answer is 4.

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2 solutions

Akshat Sharda
Dec 12, 2015

We know,

( 1 + x ) n = 1 + n x + n ( n 1 ) 2 ! x 2 + n ( n 1 ) ( n 2 ) 3 ! x 3 + (1+x)^n=1+nx+\frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2+\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}x^3+\ldots

Now,

n x = 1 3 nx=\frac{1}{3} and n ( n 1 ) 2 ! x 2 = 5 36 \frac{n(n-1)}{2!}x^2=\frac{5}{36}

By solving the above equations, we'll get x = 1 2 x=-\frac{1}{2} and n = 2 3 n=-\frac{2}{3} .

Therefore, ( 1 + x ) n = ( 1 2 ) 2 3 = 4 1 3 (1+x)^n=\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{-\frac{2}{3}}=4^{\frac{1}{3}} , so our answer is ( 4 1 3 ) 3 = 4. \left(4^{\frac{1}{3}}\right)^3 = 4.

Can someone who solved this problem without the formula write a solution for it? Thanks in advance :)

Vladimir Smith - 5 years, 6 months ago

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I managed to solve it a few days ago with an infinite sum. When I get home I'll post it. What I can remember right now was that I used (6^(n-1)) * (n-1)! As the denominator. n from 1. Noting that 0!=1

Luis Ortiz - 5 years, 6 months ago
Luis Ortiz
Dec 17, 2015

This is just a way to solve the problem without the binomial formula.

We can notice that every single denominator has a multiple of 6 (or a power of 6). If we expand every denominator and group the 6's, we will find a 'tentative' pattern.

( 1 6 0 ( 1 ) (\dfrac{1}{6^{0} * (1)} + 2 6 1 ( 1 ) \dfrac{2}{6^{1} * (1)} + 10 6 2 ( 2 ) . . . ) \dfrac{10}{6^{2} * (2)}...) 3 ^{3}

This expression is almost the same as the problem, but if we input factorials, then we get an exactly equal expression!

= ( 1 6 0 ( 0 ! ) (\dfrac{1}{6^{0} * (0!)} + 2 6 1 ( 1 ! ) \dfrac{2}{6^{1} * (1!)} + 10 6 2 ( 2 ! ) . . . ) \dfrac{10}{6^{2} * (2!)}...) 3 ^{3}

= ( 1 + n = 1 X 6 n n ! ) (1+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{X}{6^{n}* n!}) 3 ^{3}

Note: I left out the 1 for simplicity in future steps, therefore started the infinite sum from 1 instead of 0.

By inspecting, we find that the factors in the numerators are just increasing 3's. Consequently, every factor found in the numerators must be "congruent" in MOD 3 (excluding 1, that's why I left it outside). Therefore, we can use something called triple factorials to rename the series into a simpler expression.

Definition : the triple factorial of n, is the product of positive integers less than n and congruent to n mod 3. So, for example, 8 ! ! ! = 8 × 5 × 2 8!!! = 8 × 5 × 2 . By using triple factorials, we only need the largest factor of each numerator.

2 , 5 , 8 , 11... 2,5,8,11...

Numerators in the infinite sum are therefore expressed as ( 3 n 1 ) ! ! ! (3n-1)!!! .

= ( 1 + n = 1 ( 3 n 1 ) ! ! ! 6 n n ! ) (1+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{(3n-1)!!!}{6^{n}* n!}) 3 ^{3}

Triple factorial are not that famous, but we can transform them to gamma function expressions or simple factorials or Pochhammer notation, which are more popular notations.


Factorial to Gamma

Where k, x are natural numbers and x < k

( k n x ) ! k (kn-x)!_{k} = k n Γ ( n + k x k ) Γ ( k x k ) \dfrac{ k^{n} Γ(n+\dfrac{k-x}{k})}{ Γ(\dfrac{k-x}{k})}


= ( 1 + n = 1 ( 3 n 1 ) ! ! ! 6 n n ! ) (1+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{(3n-1)!!!}{6^{n}* n!}) 3 ^{3}

= ( 1 + n = 1 3 n Γ ( n + ( 2 / 3 ) ) 6 n n ! Γ ( 2 / 3 ) ) (1+\displaystyle \sum_{n=1}^\infty \dfrac{ 3^n * Γ(n+(2/3))}{6^{n}* n! * Γ(2/3)}) 3 ^{3}

=( 1 + ( 2 2 3 1 1 + (2 ^{\dfrac{2}{3}} - 1 )) 3 ^{3}

= 4 =4

Thanks for explaining your solution! I have upvoted

Vladimir Smith - 5 years, 5 months ago

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