d x n d n x ln ( x ) = x n + 1 a n ln ( x ) − b n
Let f ( n ) ( x ) be defined as the n -th derivative of x ln ( x ) .
If f ( n ) ( x ) can be written in the form shown above, then the solution to f ( n ) ( x ) = 0 can be written in the form x = e q n p n where p n and q n are coprime positive integers.
What is p 1 0 + q 1 0 ?
This section requires Javascript.
You are seeing this because something didn't load right. We suggest you, (a) try
refreshing the page, (b) enabling javascript if it is disabled on your browser and,
finally, (c)
loading the
non-javascript version of this page
. We're sorry about the hassle.
Where H n is the n -th harmonic number,
a n = ( − 1 ) n n !
b n = H n ( − 1 ) n n !
x n + 1 a n l n ( x ) − b n = x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ( l n ( x ) − H n )
We can prove that f ( n ) ( x ) = x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ( l n ( x ) − H n ) using induction.
Base Case: f ( 0 ) ( x ) = x 0 + 1 ( − 1 ) 0 ( 0 ) ! ( l n ( x ) − H 0 ) = x l n ( x )
f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) = d x d x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ( l n ( x ) − H n )
f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) = ( − 1 ) n n ! ( x 2 n + 2 x n − ( n + 1 ) x n ( l n ( x ) − H n ) )
f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) = ( − 1 ) n + 1 ( n + 1 ) ! ( x n + 2 ( l n ( x ) − H n ) − n + 1 1 )
f ( n + 1 ) ( x ) = x n + 2 ( − 1 ) n + 1 ( n + 1 ) ! ( l n ( x ) − H n + 1 ) □
Solving the equation f ( n ) ( x ) = 0 :
x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ( l n ( x ) − H n ) = 0
l n ( x ) = H n ⟹ x = e H n
Plugging in n = 1 0 gives x = e H 1 0 , so p 1 0 and q 1 0 must be the numerator and denominator of H 1 0 , respectively.
H 1 0 = k = 1 ∑ 1 0 k 1 = 1 + 2 1 + 3 1 + ⋯ + 1 0 1 = 2 5 2 0 7 3 8 1
Therefore p 1 0 = 7 3 8 1 and q 1 0 = 2 5 2 0 , so our answer must be:
p 1 0 + q 1 0 = 7 3 8 1 + 2 5 2 0 = 9 9 0 1
Problem Loading...
Note Loading...
Set Loading...
This is my 200th solution.
We shall use General Leibnitz Rule which states that
d x n d n ( f g ) = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) f ( k ) g ( n − k )
For f = ln ( x ) , g = x 1 , it becomes
d x n d n ( x ln ( x ) ) = k = 0 ∑ n ( k n ) ln ( x ) ( k ) ( x 1 ) ( n − k )
Now, we shall find ( x 1 ) ( m ) for some integer m .
Some simple computation shows that it equals ( − 1 ) k k ! x − k − 1 [You may use induction but that's trivial, however]
Now, what's ( ln ( x ) ) ( m ) for some integer m ? Well, ln ( x ) ( 1 ) = x 1 and then we know what's the nth derivative of x 1 . Hence, we can easily say that ln ( x ) ( 0 ) = ln ( x ) , ln ( x ) ( m ) = ( − 1 ) m − 1 ( m − 1 ) ! x − m + 1 − 1 , ∀ m ∈ Z +
Substituting our general derivatives,
d x n d n ( x ln ( x ) ) = ( − 1 ) n ( 0 n ) n ! ln ( x ) x − n − 1 + k = 1 ∑ n ( k n ) ( − 1 ) k − 1 ( k − 1 ) ! x − k ( − 1 ) n − k ( n − k ) ! x − n + k − 1
= x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ln ( x ) + k = 1 ∑ n k n ! x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n − 1
= x n + 1 ( − 1 ) n n ! ln ( x ) − ( − 1 ) n n ! H n , H n is the Harmonic number.
The solution for f ( n ) ( x ) = 0 hence becomes e H n .
As a result, our final answer would be e H 1 0 .