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Unlike the problem question suggest there is only one value of m , let it be m 1 , that satisfies m x e m x 2 ≥ ln x for all real x > 0 .
Let us consider the equation m x e m x 2 = ln x . We find that (see graphs) for m > m 1 , there is no solution to the equation or m x e m x 2 > ln x , ∀ x > 0 . When m = m 1 , there is only one solution and m x e m x 2 ≥ ln x , ∀ x > 0 is true. For m < m 1 the inequality does not hold.
When m = m 1 , we have m 1 x e m 1 x 2 = ln x . . . ( ∗ ) and
d x d m 1 x e m 1 x 2 m 1 e m 1 x 2 + 2 m 1 2 x 2 e m 1 x 2 ln x + 3 m 1 x 2 ln x ⟹ m 1 ⟹ ( ∗ ) : 2 x ln x 1 − ln x e 2 ln x 1 − ln x ( 1 − ln x ) e 2 ln x 1 − ln x ⟹ x ⟹ m 1 = d x d ln x = x 1 = 1 = 2 x 2 ln x 1 − ln x = ln x = 2 x ln 2 x = e = 2 e 1 As ( ∗ ) : m 1 x e m 1 x 2 = ln x I solved it using numerical method.