Madhava from Sangamagrama?

Calculus Level 5

Let { F n } \{F_n\} to be the Fibonacci's sequence , where F 1 = F 2 = 1 F_1 = F_2=1 and F n + 1 = F n + F n 1 , n 2 F_{n + 1} = F_n + F_{n - 1}, \space \forall \, n \ge 2 , and n = 1 arctan ( 1 F 2 n + 1 ) = A π B , \displaystyle \sum_{n = 1}^\infty \arctan \left(\frac{1}{F_{2n + 1}}\right) = \frac{A\pi}{B}, where A A and B B are coprime positive integers. Find 10 A + B 10A + B .


The answer is 14.

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2 solutions

This is only my humble approach from "thundering" Otto Bretscher's solution.

We are considering the function arctan : ( , ) ( π 2 , π 2 ) \arctan : (-\infty,\infty) \rightarrow (\frac{-\pi}{2},\frac{\pi}{2}) as an inverse function of a bijective function strictly increasing( tan \tan )

1.- Let c n = arctan ( 1 F n ) c_n = \arctan(\frac{1}{F_n}) and firstly we are going to see this sequence n = 1 c 2 n + 1 \displaystyle \sum_{n = 1}^\infty c_{2n + 1} converges. For it, I'm going to use Taylor series of arctan ( x ) \arctan (x) ~ x x as x 0 x \to 0 and D'Alembert convergence criterium lim n c 2 n + 3 c 2 n + 1 = lim n F 2 n + 1 F 2 n + 3 = lim n F 2 n + 1 F 2 n + 2 F 2 n + 2 F 2 n + 3 = 1 ϕ 2 < 1 \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {c_{2n + 3}}{c_{2n + 1}} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {F_{2n + 1}}{F_{2n + 3}} = \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac {F_{2n + 1}}{F_{2n + 2}} \cdot \frac{F_{2n + 2}}{F_{2n + 3}} = \frac{1}{\phi^2} < 1 \Rightarrow the sequence n = 1 c 2 n + 1 \displaystyle \sum_{n = 1}^\infty c_{2n + 1} converges,where ϕ \phi is the golden ratio. This means the series n = 1 c 2 n + 1 x n \displaystyle \sum_{n = 1}^\infty c_{2n + 1} x^n has radius of convergence ρ = ϕ 2 \rho = \phi^2 ,i.e, the series converges if x < ρ = ϕ 2 |x| < \rho = \phi^2 and x R x \in \mathbb{R} , even if x C x \in \mathbb{C} and x < ρ = ϕ 2 |x| < \rho = \phi^2


2.- The second part is only a translation from Otto's, using Cassini's identity ( F n + i F n + j F n F n + i + j = ( 1 ) n F i F j F_{n + i}F_{n + j} - F_n F_{n + i + j} = (-1)^n F_i F_j ) F 2 n 1 F 2 n + 2 1 = F 2 n 1 F 2 n + 2 + ( 1 ) 2 n 1 F 1 F 2 = F 2 n F 2 n + 1 F_{2n - 1}F_{2n + 2} - 1 = F_{2n - 1}F_{2n + 2} + (-1)^{2n - 1} F_1 F_ 2 = F_{2n}F_{2n + 1} \iff ( F 2 n 1 + F 2 n ) F 2 n + 2 1 = F 2 n ( F 2 n + 1 + F 2 n + 2 ) \iff (F_{2n - 1} + F_{2n})F_{2n + 2} - 1 = F_{2n}(F_{2n + 1} + F_{2n + 2}) \iff F 2 n + 1 F 2 n + 2 1 = F 2 n ( F 2 n + 1 + F 2 n + 2 ) F_{2n + 1}F_{2n + 2} - 1 = F_{2n}(F_{2n + 1} + F_{2n + 2}) \iff 1 F 2 n = F 2 n + 1 + F 2 n + 2 F 2 n + 1 F 2 n + 2 1 tan ( c 2 n ) = tan ( c 2 n + 1 + c 2 n + 2 ) c 2 n = c 2 n + 1 + c 2 n + 2 . \iff \frac{1}{F_{2n}} = \frac{F_{2n + 1} + F_{2n + 2}}{F_{2n + 1}F_{2n + 2} - 1} \iff \tan(c_{2n}) = \tan ( c_{2n +1} + c_{2n + 2}) \iff c_{2n} = c_{2n + 1} + c_{2n + 2}. The rest of proof is exactly equal to Otto's c 3 = c 2 c 4 c 5 = c 4 c 6 c 7 = c 6 c 8 . . . c_3 = c_2 - c_4 \\ c_5 = c_4 - c_6 \\ c_7 = c_6 - c_8...

Otto Bretscher
May 11, 2016

Another lovely problem, compañero!

Let c n = arctan ( 1 F n ) c_n=\arctan(\frac{1}{F_n}) . The identity c 2 n = c 2 n + 1 + c 2 n + 2 c_{2n}=c_{2n+1}+c_{2n+2} follows from the addition theorem for tan and Cassini's identity. By induction we find π 4 = c 2 = c 2 N + 2 + n = 1 N c 2 n + 1 \frac{\pi}{4}=c_2=c_{2N+2}+\sum_{n=1}^{N}c_{2n+1} . The limit as N N tends to infinity is π 4 = n = 1 c 2 n + 1 \frac{\pi}{4}=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}c_{2n+1} so that the answer is 10 × 1 + 4 = 14 10\times1+4=\boxed{14}

Thank you very much Otto,(encouragement) \uparrow .I have some problems with my computer, I have to change it...maybe I can't answer some replies in some time ... I have just understood your proof now,It has taken me some time... My proof is a "botched job".. I consider arctan like a complex main "log" when 0 < |x| < 1... I'm sure, my proof is wrong...

Guillermo Templado - 5 years, 1 month ago

Otto, I have liked so much your proof. With your permission, I would like to make a whole translation of your proof, can I,please?.I found this result in a book about π \pi , with fascinating formulas, like this,or this one from Euler π = 2 k = 1 ( 1 + sin π p k 2 p k ) \displaystyle \large \pi = \frac{2}{\displaystyle \prod_{k = 1}^{\infty} \left( 1 + \frac{\sin \frac{\pi p_k}{2}}{p_k} \right)} with { p k } \{p_k\} wrapping the set of prime numbers, but it is a science popular book without demonstrations... I repeat, sorry, your proof is wonderful,can I do a "whole" translation of your proof, please?

Guillermo Templado - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Yes, by all means!

Otto Bretscher - 5 years, 1 month ago

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Thank you very much, I'm going to use "everything" I know for my approach of your proof, even D'Alembert convergence criterion " lim n a n + 1 a n < 1 \displaystyle \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{a_{n + 1}}{a_n} < 1 ..." for seeing actually firstly the series converges. In this case, the series absolutely converges and we can sum the terms inconditionally... in any order..

Guillermo Templado - 5 years, 1 month ago

A mindblowing problem and solution....mesmerized wanna give +100 tho!!!!

rajdeep brahma - 3 years ago

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