Magnetic flux + Calculus = MagaCulus

Let an circular current loop is placed in X-Y co-ordinate plane such That it's centre lies on Point P ( x 0 , y 0 ) P({ x }_{ 0 } ,{ y }_{ 0 }) in First quadrant.

Let I 0 { I }_{ 0 } current is flowing in the Loop. Then find The Magnetic flux passing through The X-Y plane where X - Coordinate Has The restriction That:

X 0 X \le 0

Details

  • R = 1 R = 1 m
  • x 0 = 2 x_0 = 2 m
  • y 0 = 4 y_0 = 4 m
  • I 0 = 8 × 1 0 7 I_0 = 8 \times 10^7 C/s
This is part of set Mixing of concept


The answer is 26.93.

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2 solutions

Deepanshu Gupta
Oct 23, 2014

To find the magnetic flux passing through the X-Y plane when X<0 it is difficult to direct integrate it..!! So let's Do some Different.

Assume an Hypothetical current carrying wire which is Placed on entire Y-axis and whose ends are connected at infinity so that they form a Square Type loop. Also Let the current flowing in the square Loop is I 1 { I }_{ 1 }

Now name the two loop. Call circular loop to be 2 and the square loop as 1.

And Let Mutual inductance between these Loops is " M "

ϕ 2 = M I 1 ( 1 ) \displaystyle{{ \phi }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad M{ I }_{ 1 }\quad \longrightarrow (1)} .

Also

ϕ 2 = B 1 d A 2 cos π \displaystyle{{ \phi }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad \int { { B }_{ 1 }{ dA }_{ 2 }\cos { \pi } } } .

now Consider an rectangular strip in the circular loop-2 of width dx which is at an distance of x From the loop-1 (From y-axis)

So According to figure :

Diagram Diagram

x = x 0 R sin θ d x = R cos θ d θ B 1 = μ 0 I 1 2 π x d A 2 = l d x = ( 2 R cos θ ) R cos θ \displaystyle{x\quad =\quad { x }_{ 0 }\quad -\quad R\sin { \theta } \quad \\ \\ dx\quad =\quad -R\cos { \theta } d\theta \\ \\ { B }_{ 1 }\quad =\quad \frac { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ I }_{ 1 } }{ 2\pi x } \\ \\ { dA }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad ldx\quad =\quad -(2R\cos { \theta } )R\cos { \theta } } .

So magnetic flux passing through Loop-2 is

ϕ 2 = μ 0 I 1 R 2 π π / 2 π / 2 cos 2 θ x 0 R sin θ d θ ϕ 2 = μ 0 I 1 R 2 π ( ( 2 3 ) π ) ( 2 ) \displaystyle{{ \phi }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad \frac { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ I }_{ 1 }{ R }^{ 2 } }{ \pi } \int _{ \pi /2 }^{ -\pi /2 }{ \frac { \cos ^{ 2 }{ \theta } }{ \quad { x }_{ 0 }\quad -\quad R\sin { \theta } \quad } d\theta } \\ \\ { \phi }_{ 2 }\quad =\quad \frac { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ I }_{ 1 }{ R }^{ 2 } }{ \pi } ((2-\sqrt { 3 } )\pi )\quad \longrightarrow \quad (2)} .

Now comparing equation 1 and 2 we get value of M that is :

M = μ 0 R 2 π ( ( 2 3 ) π ) \displaystyle{M\quad =\quad \frac { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ R }^{ 2 } }{ \pi } ((2-\sqrt { 3 } )\pi )} .

Now The Magnetic Flux Passing through The X-Y Plane where (X < 0 ) is equal to magnetic flux passing through the Loop-1

ϕ ( X Y P l a n e X 0 ) = ϕ 1 = M I l o o p 2 = μ 0 R 2 I 0 π ( ( 2 3 ) π ) = 26.93 A n s \displaystyle{{ \phi }_{ (XY-Plane\quad X\le 0) }\quad ={ \quad \phi }_{ 1 }\quad =\quad M\quad { I }_{ loop-2 }\\ \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad =\frac { { \mu }_{ 0 }{ R }^{ 2 }{ I }_{ 0 } }{ \pi } ((2-\sqrt { 3 } )\pi )\\ \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad \quad =\quad 26.93\quad Ans} .

This was a really brilliant problem Deepanshu!! Just loved solving it!! ¨ \ddot\smile

Karthik Kannan - 6 years, 7 months ago

Nice question ! Learnt new thing

Nishu sharma - 6 years ago

jst gr8 i took it as a dipole [ acc to a theory ] and then integrated ans was coming out to be 25.3 probably it was wrong because the dipole is not short :(

Akul Agrawal - 5 years, 11 months ago

Nice solution.

Spandan Senapati - 4 years ago

Bro you are genius

Ayush Sharma - 3 years, 11 months ago

Yep Mutual induction makes this a classic Nice problem

Suhas Sheikh - 2 years, 10 months ago
Jatin Yadav
Oct 23, 2014

Consider the boundary of the region X 0 X \leq 0 as a rectangular loop. Let ϕ \phi be the required flux.

ϕ = M I 0 \phi = M I_{0} , where M M is the coefficient of mutual induction.

If we introduce current I I in the rectangular loop. Let ϕ \phi' be the flux in the loop due to this current.

Clearly,

ϕ = M I \phi' = M I

Clearly, ϕ \phi' is due to Y a x i s Y-axis only, because other wires are far away from the loop contributing to negligiblle magnetic flux.

Clearly,

ϕ = 1 3 μ 0 I 2 π r 2 1 ( 2 r ) 2 d r \phi' = \displaystyle \int_{1}^{3} \dfrac{\mu_{0} I}{2 \pi r} 2 \sqrt{1 - (2-r)^2} dr

= ( 8 4 3 ) π I (8- 4\sqrt{3}) \pi I (Using the substitution ( 2 r ) = sin θ (2-r) = \sin \theta )

Clearly, M = ( 8 4 3 ) π Henry M = (8-4\sqrt{3}) \pi \text{ Henry }

Hence, ϕ = M I 0 = 26.94 Tm 2 \phi = M I_{0} = \boxed{26.94 {\text{Tm}}^2}

Hey @jatin yadav You Check your calculation according to this your answer would be 13.468 .

And Sorry Since just after your solution I upload my because while you upload your's at the same time I'am uploading mine..!! I didn't Know about This..!! Mine Solution is Lengthy So It takes more Time ..So sorry Once again

Deepanshu Gupta - 6 years, 7 months ago

Log in to reply

Yes, thanks for pointing that out. Actually, II missed to show a 2 2 in the solution. And no problem :)

jatin yadav - 6 years, 7 months ago

@jatin yadav can you add more steps on how to evaluated the integral.thanks

Navin Murarka - 3 years, 7 months ago

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