The Field Keeps Me Down

An object with mass m m and charge q q is dropped on an infinite inclined plane which forms an angle θ \theta with the horizontal, in the presence of a constant magnetic field B 0 B_{0} which goes out the page. If the coefficient of friction between the plane and the object is μ \mu , the maximum magnetic force can be written as m g μ ( a μ b ) \dfrac{mg}{\mu}(a-\mu b) , find the value of a 2 + b 2 a^2+b^2


The answer is 1.

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1 solution

Relevant wiki: Lorentz force law (mixed fields)

With the FBD we can find out that the magnitude of the normal is given by: N = c o s ( θ ) m g + q B 0 x ˙ N=cos(\theta)\cdot mg + qB_{0}\dot{x} Then, the value of the friction force equals: f r = μ ( c o s ( θ ) m g + q B 0 x ˙ ) |f_{r}|=\mu (cos(\theta)\cdot mg + qB_{0}\dot{x}) So the net force, using the Newton's Second Law of Motion , will give us the next differential equation: m x ¨ = s i n ( θ ) m g μ ( c o s ( θ ) m g + q B 0 x ˙ ) m\ddot{x}=sin(\theta)\cdot mg - \mu (cos(\theta)\cdot mg + qB_{0}\dot{x}) x ¨ + μ q B 0 m x ˙ = g ( s i n ( θ ) μ c o s ( θ ) ) \ddot{x}+\frac{\mu qB_{0}}{m}\dot{x}=g(sin(\theta)-\mu cos(\theta)) Which gives us as solution for the velocity: x ˙ = m g μ q B 0 ( s i n ( θ ) μ c o s ( θ ) ) ( 1 e μ q B 0 m t ) \dot{x}=\frac{mg}{\mu qB_{0}}(sin(\theta) - \mu cos(\theta))(1-e^{-\frac{\mu qB_{0}}{m}t}) As the magnetic force, by Lorentz Law , is proportional to the velocity, the maximum magnetic force will be reached at the moment of maxmum velocity, which is x ˙ m a x = m g μ q B 0 ( s i n ( θ ) μ c o s ( θ ) ) \dot{x}_{max}=\frac{mg}{\mu qB_{0}}(sin(\theta)-\mu cos(\theta)) . So the maximum magnetic force equals: F B m a x = m g μ ( s i n ( θ ) μ c o s ( θ ) ) F_{Bmax}=\frac{mg}{\mu}(sin(\theta)-\mu cos(\theta)) Then: s i n 2 ( θ ) + c o s 2 ( θ ) = 1 sin^2(\theta)+cos^2(\theta)=1

Visualizing the motion of the block i got that the the maximum velocity of the block will be acheived when acc. of block equals zero. ( as velocity of the block along the wedge increases so does the oppsing force on it.) Using this as a result we won't need diff. eqn. Though mathematically your soution is sound.

Ayush Sinha - 4 years, 10 months ago

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